Lagrangian of a monopole (Einstein notation is used)

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the calculation of the equation of motion for a charged particle in the magnetic field of a monopole, characterized by the magnetic field \textbf{B} = g \frac{\textbf{r}}{r^3} and the Lagrangian \mathcal{L} = \frac{m\dot{\textbf{r}}^2}{2} + e\textbf{A}\cdot \dot{\textbf{r}}. The equations of motion derived from the Lagrangian do not match the expected results due to an additional term -e\dot{x_j}\partial_j A_i, which arises from the vector potential \textbf{A}. The discussion highlights the challenge of proving that this term becomes zero, as it is suggested that the vector potential has components only perpendicular to \textbf{r}. The conversation also addresses the limitations of using the expression \textbf{B} = \nabla \times \textbf{A} for monopoles.

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IanBerkman
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Hi everyone,

I am trying to calculate the equation of motion of a charged particle in the field of a monopole.

The magnetic field of a monopole of strength g is given by:
\textbf{B} = g \frac{\textbf{r}}{r^3}
And the Lagrangian by:
\mathcal{L} = \frac{m\dot{\textbf{r}}^2}{2} + e\textbf{A}\cdot \dot{\textbf{r}}
Where e is the electric charge and A is the vector potential of the magnetic field \textbf{B} = \nabla \times \textbf{A}
The equations of motion (1) should become:
m \ddot{\textbf{r}} = e(\dot{\textbf{r}} \times \textbf{B})

The EL equation is:
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{x_i}} = \frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial x_i}

In Einstein notation, I get the corresponding terms:
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{x_i}} = m\ddot{x_i}\\<br /> \frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial x_i} = e \dot{x_j}\partial_i A_j

However, this does not correspond to the equations of motion given by equation (1) translated into an Einstein notation:
m\ddot{x_i} = e \dot{x_j}\partial_i A_j - e\dot{x_j}\partial_j A_i
Since this equation includes the extra term:
- e\dot{x_j}\partial_j A_i
Which corresponds to:
-e(\dot{\textbf{r}} \cdot \nabla)\textbf{A}

I have the feeling everything is alright, but this extra term becomes zero since the vector potential only has components perpendicular to r, however, I cannot find a way to prove it mathematically.

It is quite some work to type all the steps in between, and I tried to stay as clear as possible.
If there are any questions or if something is not clear, I would gladly like to answer them.

Thanks in advance,
Ian
 
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I'm not exactly sure what you're doing, but you can't describe a monopole using \vec{B} = \nabla \times \vec{A}. That's because

\nabla \cdot \vec{B} \propto \rho_m the monopole density
\nabla \cdot (\nabla \times \vec{A}) = 0
 
But also,

\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{r}} = m \dot{r} + e \vec{A}

So \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{r}} = m \ddot{r} + e \frac{d}{dt} \vec{A}, not just m \ddot{r}
 

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