IanBerkman
- 52
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Hi everyone,
I am trying to calculate the equation of motion of a charged particle in the field of a monopole.
The magnetic field of a monopole of strength g is given by:
\textbf{B} = g \frac{\textbf{r}}{r^3}
And the Lagrangian by:
\mathcal{L} = \frac{m\dot{\textbf{r}}^2}{2} + e\textbf{A}\cdot \dot{\textbf{r}}
Where e is the electric charge and A is the vector potential of the magnetic field \textbf{B} = \nabla \times \textbf{A}
The equations of motion (1) should become:
m \ddot{\textbf{r}} = e(\dot{\textbf{r}} \times \textbf{B})
The EL equation is:
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{x_i}} = \frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial x_i}
In Einstein notation, I get the corresponding terms:
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{x_i}} = m\ddot{x_i}\\<br /> \frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial x_i} = e \dot{x_j}\partial_i A_j
However, this does not correspond to the equations of motion given by equation (1) translated into an Einstein notation:
m\ddot{x_i} = e \dot{x_j}\partial_i A_j - e\dot{x_j}\partial_j A_i
Since this equation includes the extra term:
- e\dot{x_j}\partial_j A_i
Which corresponds to:
-e(\dot{\textbf{r}} \cdot \nabla)\textbf{A}
I have the feeling everything is alright, but this extra term becomes zero since the vector potential only has components perpendicular to r, however, I cannot find a way to prove it mathematically.
It is quite some work to type all the steps in between, and I tried to stay as clear as possible.
If there are any questions or if something is not clear, I would gladly like to answer them.
Thanks in advance,
Ian
I am trying to calculate the equation of motion of a charged particle in the field of a monopole.
The magnetic field of a monopole of strength g is given by:
\textbf{B} = g \frac{\textbf{r}}{r^3}
And the Lagrangian by:
\mathcal{L} = \frac{m\dot{\textbf{r}}^2}{2} + e\textbf{A}\cdot \dot{\textbf{r}}
Where e is the electric charge and A is the vector potential of the magnetic field \textbf{B} = \nabla \times \textbf{A}
The equations of motion (1) should become:
m \ddot{\textbf{r}} = e(\dot{\textbf{r}} \times \textbf{B})
The EL equation is:
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{x_i}} = \frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial x_i}
In Einstein notation, I get the corresponding terms:
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{x_i}} = m\ddot{x_i}\\<br /> \frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial x_i} = e \dot{x_j}\partial_i A_j
However, this does not correspond to the equations of motion given by equation (1) translated into an Einstein notation:
m\ddot{x_i} = e \dot{x_j}\partial_i A_j - e\dot{x_j}\partial_j A_i
Since this equation includes the extra term:
- e\dot{x_j}\partial_j A_i
Which corresponds to:
-e(\dot{\textbf{r}} \cdot \nabla)\textbf{A}
I have the feeling everything is alright, but this extra term becomes zero since the vector potential only has components perpendicular to r, however, I cannot find a way to prove it mathematically.
It is quite some work to type all the steps in between, and I tried to stay as clear as possible.
If there are any questions or if something is not clear, I would gladly like to answer them.
Thanks in advance,
Ian