LHC - the last chance for all theories of everything?

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  • #91
marcus said:
If you have a link handy to some particular abstract from the conference you were talking about, I'd be glad to give a look.

Sorry - it wasn't exactly handy. See http://www.auger.org/technical_info/ICRC2009/arxiv_astrophysics.pdf" for the Auger view: "The evidence for anisotropy has not strengthened since the analysis reported in [1]. The degree of correlation with objects in the VCV catalog appears to be weaker than suggested by the earliest data."

As you know, HiRes sees no such correlation.

Nature's http://blogs.nature.com/news/blog/2009/05/aps_2009_pierre_auger_backs_of.html" says "And now, today, Stefan Westerhoff, an Auger scientist from the University of Wisconsin at Madison, said that, based on new particle detections -- they have more than 50 now -- the correlation no longer holds. "The signal strength is certainly considerably weaker now," he told his audience. "This is certainly a disappointment."

The proceedings of that conference (APS 2009) unfortunately seem not to be available yet.
 
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  • #92
Fantastic!
this makes UHECR more of a mystery.
Maybe we should have a separate thread to keep track of this, but for now I will continue in context. Here is more of the 3 May quote about the Auger news at APS meeting:

==quote Nature.com==
APS 2009: Pierre Auger backs off claims for cosmic ray source

The mysterious origin of ultra-high energy cosmic rays is, it seems, still a mystery. Two years ago, scientists at the Pierre Auger Observatory in Argentina thought they had it solved. They published a paper in Science, based on two dozen particles, that there was a correlation with the location of Active Galactic Nuclei -- supermassive black holes that accelerate jets of material at near-light speed throughout the universe. At the time of the announcment, there was some doubt: The Hi-Res project, which scans the northern sky like Auger does the south, found no such correlation.
And now, today, Stefan Westerhoff, an Auger scientist from the University of Wisconsin at Madison, said that, based on new particle detections -- they have more than 50 now -- the correlation no longer holds. "The signal strength is certainly considerably weaker now," he told his audience. "This is certainly a disappointment."
But the correlation isn't so weak that they can give up. The 70% correlation between the cosmic rays and the AGN at the time of the Science publication has now dropped to about 40% -- considerably less, but not enough to support the null hypothesis. What could cause some particles to come from AGN, but not others? Westerhoff says it might have something to do with their composition. Maybe the protons come from the AGN, whereas higher mass cosmic rays, say iron nuclei, do not...
==endquote==

Here's a link to my post #66
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?p=2330554#post2330554
which had the abstract of an April 2009 paper by Glennys Farrar et al. They seemed to think there was some correlation too, but not complete.
 
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  • #93
The thing that's not being said is that if you split the data into the "early" and "late" phases, the correlation is almost entirely in the early set. You can sort of see it yourself - if with half the data you have a 70% correlation, and with two halves it's 40%, what's the correlation in the second half?
 
  • #94
RUTA said:
How does this bear on the original post for this thread? I've lost track.

I think I started the trouble in post #17 saying that ... the LHC will be absolutely mute about any "ToE". It can support theories with respect to their low energy regime, but nothing else.

Then we started to discuss what a ToE could be, what the requirements are etc.

If we agree that a good candidate for a ToE must incorporate all known interactions, must be predictive up to arbitrary high energies and must be mathematically consistent (e.g. free of singularities, non-renormalizability, certain anomalies, ...) - and if we forget about all metaphysical speculations - then it's time to remember that we currently do not know a single candidate ToE.
 
  • #95
tom.stoer said:
I think I started the trouble in post #17 saying that ... the LHC will be absolutely mute about any "ToE". It can support theories with respect to their low energy regime, but nothing else.

Then we started to discuss what a ToE could be, what the requirements are etc.

If we agree that a good candidate for a ToE must incorporate all known interactions, must be predictive up to arbitrary high energies and must be mathematically consistent (e.g. free of singularities, non-renormalizability, certain anomalies, ...) - and if we forget about all metaphysical speculations - then it's time to remember that we currently do not know a single candidate ToE.

Thanks. I can't think of a theory or pseudo-theory (e.g., strings) that meets your requirements for a candidate ToE. And, I agree that any such theory would not be confirmed by low energy tests alone, unless that is the realm where it is deemed fundamental. One really has to produce definitive experimental confirmation of its most fundamental aspects and the fundamental realm of all ToE-wanna-be programs today resides at high energy (I think strings would require an accelerator as big as the galaxy, and GUTs an accelerator as big as the solar system). Do you know of any exceptions, i.e., any programs where unification doesn't involve high energy realms? I asked this question before (maybe on this thread) and no one responded with any.
 
  • #96
RUTA said:
I can't think of a theory ... that meets your requirements for a candidate ToE. ... Do you know of any exceptions, i.e., any programs where unification doesn't involve high energy realms? I asked this question before (maybe on this thread) and no one responded with any.

I am not sure but I think I remeber. I didn't respond because unfortunately I do not have anything to say about it. I do not know any candidate ToE.

Remark: should we have a look at strings and why they fail to be a candidate ToE?
 
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  • #97
tom.stoer said:
I am not sure but I think I remeber. I didn't respond because unfortunately I do not have anything to say about it. I do not know any candidate ToE.

Then perhaps we should start from principle alone to develop a TOE. It doesn't seem likely that we will ever be able to generate the energies necessary to confirm a TOE that is derived from curve fitting the data from experiment; we can't experiment with other possible universes. So we have no choice but to try to rely on some overriding, underpinning principle. But what principle could explain absolutely everything? The only thing that could explain absolutely everything is logic. Otherwise, you are left with something in nature, particles, strings, or spacetime structures, that need further explanation... Where did those things come from? But all explanations stop and you have a TOE if physics is derived from logic itself. So I wonder how the theoretical physics community looks upon any attempt to derive physics from logic. Do they dismiss such attempts out of hand? Are they skeptical and wait to see the theory? Would they gladdy welcome such a derivation if one were presented?
 
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  • #98
friend said:
So I wonder how the theoretical physics community looks upon any attempt to derive physics from logic. Do they dismiss such attempts out of hand? Are they skeptical and wait to see the theory? Would they gladdy welcome such a derivation if one were presented?

How would you derive physics from logic? If we consider a pure axiomatic approach to physics from which things are deduced, then the question is WHAT axioms? Then it becomes the question of finding axioms. It doesn't solve anything in itself. It just moves the problem around. Then the status of the axioms is the same as the status of physical law.

If you then, like I do, think it's best to see laws as evolved, and evolving, then the same would apply to axiomatic approaches. The set of axioms would be subject to constant negotation and thus in principle, evovling, and there would not exists a universal timeless objective measure of the validity of axioms. They could be judged exlusively by their fitness only.

In this latter sense, I think physics could be done that way, but in this dynamical axiom vision, the problems are the same, it's just that we relabeled the words. Law -> axiom. Without solving any of the core issues.

/Fredrik
 
  • #99
friend said:
we will ever be able to generate the energies necessary to confirm a TOE that is derived from curve fitting the data from experiment; we can't experiment with other possible universes. So we have no choice but to try to rely on some overriding, underpinning principle. But what principle could explain absolutely everything?

I thought about this again, and in specific sense I think this might be an idea. As I see it, scientific process has two components it's

1) the production and construction of inferences, and there appears to be a kind of logic to this.
2) the feedback from the environment (~experiment)

A complete picture can not grow without (2) I think, but otoh I think we have not even close to exhauset the power of (1). I also think it's an almost exaggerated interest in the high energy experiments as the only place to get things. Some others point to cosmology, but I would like to add another more obvious and more accesible scale, which is the complex system physics, which would have to deal/explain behaviour that emerge only in complex systems.

Ariel Caticha going the tradition of Jaynes attempts to derive the laws of physics from general principles of inferece, such as rationality and honesty. This might partially be said to be in this direction.

You asked for "physics from logic", and Ariel, Jaynes and those working in that tradition view probability theory as an "extension to logic".
But while his idea is to derive the laws of physics from more or less standard probability and an Max Ent principle for information processing. I think one can go one level deeper and ask if standard probability and maximal entropy are really the only rational premises? I think here is a lot one can do without high energy accelerators.

And maybe this can ultimately produce more specific and more confident predictions for future high energy experiments or astronomical observations.

About my objection to the axiomatic approach - this is actually also what Ariel is doing and is where I disagree with them, since he is starting with some key axioms that leads to a unique formalism (which is of course probability theory, and it's no coincidence) and a unique rule for information entropic processing by a specific choice of entropy measure.

How about if we instead consider that the axioms are say mutating, could different systems of inference, in some situations be more fit? I think so. This is as far as I konw very poorly investigated. And to investigate this, one does not at least immediately need any LHC data. So I think there is a lot of progress that could be done still on point (1)

/Fredrik
 
  • #100
RUTA said:
This has nothing to do with the progress of science, we're talking about how much information is contained in the set of all integers. I say it's infinite and you say it's zero. To argue my point, all I have to do is "play dumb" and require you to give me the information explicitly, i.e., list the elements of the set. If you're correct, you have nothing to send me. If I'm correct, you have an infinite number of numbers to send me. That's my argument.

How does this bear on the original post for this thread? I've lost track.

ok. Alice sends Bob 2 messages:
* first contains the length of a list
* second message contining a list.

For example:
* 3
* {39449, 545959, 6969}

As information can not travel faster then light, Bob has to wait the arrival of the second message until he is able to reproduce a list.

Except: except 0 and inf. Receiving "inf" Bob already knows what Alice is going to send him. Hence, inf and 0 does not contain any information.
 
  • #101
tom.stoer said:
From a computational-complexity point of view there is no difference between the two statements
a) one universe exists
or
b) all possible universes exist - except one
Of course specifying the one in both cases should require the same amount of information.

Similarly computationally the statements
a') no universe exists
and
b') all possible universes exist
have the same complexity.

If you argue strictly based on computational complexity and with Ockams razor, then you cannot distinguish between a') and b') nor can you distinguish between a) or b). So in order to do that you have to refer to some experimental result, i.e you have to enlarge your reasoning beyond computational complexity.

You do that by taking into account "known facts" and by going from a mathematical to an ontological reasoning. Of course you can rule out a') immediately. You can trust in a least one universe which means that ontologically and based on Ockams razor you should not add more assumptions than strictly necessary. So you add the assumption that one universe exists and - wow - it agrees with the known facts. If you would instead add an uncountable set of universes it would still agree with the known facts, but you have to explain why "they are there but invisible". Therefore you add assumptions which you cannot prove.

And don't forget: you cannot use your "mathematical multiverse hypothesis" as starting point for your proof as your quest is just to prove exactly this "mathematical multiverse hypothesis".

We have almost agreed :)

Yes, empty set and universum contain the same amount of information - ZERO
So our multiverse contains NO information (of course not for "frogs") as it is Universum and it always exists in one and only one possible state.

And yes, my reasoning is:
2 possible options: NOTHING or EVERYTHING, we observe SOMETHING, hence the second option is valid. Note that "assumption that one universe exists" is not an assumption - it is an experimental fact :)

Your last point is valid: I use MUH as an axiom, because I don't see any choice.

I have 2 questions if you have time:
1. Do the inner regions of black holes (inside their horizons) exist? Are any claims of what is going on there falsifable?
2. Do you think that TOE would use only formulas or it would need to use some words? In another words, do you expect TOE to be interpretation-less? What do you expect TOE to do with the interpretations? (give a new one, tell us what is a right one, making the whole notion of interpretation a nonsense)?
 
  • #102
Dmitry67 said:
1. Do the inner regions of black holes (inside their horizons) exist? Are any claims of what is going on there falsifable?
Yes, inner regions do exist and in principle they are accessible for an experiment.

Think about a brave colleague (an expert in theory, experiments and results regarding GR and QG). His last project (together with his students) is to travel into a gigantic black hole and to spend the rest of his life in order to complete the knowledge regarding black holes. Within this large black hole he will - besides his experimental activity - publish research papers, create an own arxiv repository, organize conferences etc. Of course he has to hurry up, but in principle nothing will be in conflict with his objective.

Dmitry67 said:
2. Do you think that TOE would use only formulas or it would need to use some words? In another words, do you expect TOE to be interpretation-less? What do you expect TOE to do with the interpretations? (give a new one, tell us what is a right one, making the whole notion of interpretation a nonsense)?
I am not so sure.

A short-term candidate will certainly not be free of interpretation and non-mathematical rules ("if X ... then apply rule Y"). Even the basics of that theory may be easier to formulate in english language ("the speed of light is constant in all reference frames").

A long-term candidate may exist on the "next stage"; it could be some kind of meta-theory that addresses these formalization-issues; but perhaps it will aim for something totally different - today we do not know.

I expect that a candidate ToE will be based on few (hopefully :-) mathematical and non-mathematical "axioms". It will be able to address questkions like:
- what is the structure of space-time
- how does space-time, local gauge-symmetry, ... arise from X (where X is a more fundamental structure)
- why do we live in 3+1 dimensions
- why do we observe U(1)*SU(2)*SU(3)
- why do we observe three fermion generations, ...
- what is the origin of the cosmological constant
- what replaces the black hole and big banhg singularity, ...
- ...

After we are able to study one candidate ToE, of course new questions will arise, especially regarding the mathematicsl structure(s) X. Perhaps there will be competing structures X, X', ... (strings, loops, non-commutative geometry, ...). I do not know if this will be an iterative process (just as it was the last centuries) or if there will eventually be a paradigm shift which allows us to go the meta-theory level.

I agree that we need some deeper insights regarding development of physical theories, especially as we will have less new experimental facts - just because of the required energy scale. That means we must focus more on abstract ideas, mathematical justifications, completeness, consistency etc.

As you say, something like MUH will be an axiom (you could even say dogma, doctrine) and will therefore belong to / be related to the philosophical realm. I am pretty sure that physics and philosophy will again come closer together has they are today (there was an intensive dialog in the early twenties when QM was developed; in the following decades "shut up and calculate" became the major guideline.
 
  • #103
tom.stoer said:
1 I expect that a candidate ToE will be based on few (hopefully :-) mathematical and non-mathematical "axioms".

2
- why do we live in 3+1 dimensions
- why do we observe U(1)*SU(2)*SU(3)
- why do we observe three fermion generations, ...

1 I always asked - but never got an answer - for an example of a "non-mathematical" axiom. An example of an axiom which can not be expressed in mathematical terms. Could you provide any examples (even not realistic, not about our universe)?

2 What kind of "why" do you mean?
a. anthropological principle
b. cosmic darwinism
c. proof of mathematical inconsistency of other possible universes
 
  • #104
Regarding a non-mathematical axiom: take constant c in GR as an example: as long as you do not have the full developed GR based on manifolds it's hard to write this as a mathematical axiom; of course you can start with a local description which will eventually correspond to the tangent space, but you don't know this in advance. So take this as a an example.

Regarding "why": the basic problem is that it's easy to ask these why-questions, but it's hard to answer them; therefore I don't think that it's a good idea to exclude ideas at this early stage. So right now I am trying to be open-minded to all three directions. My problem with
a) is that it appears to me as self-immunization against falsification
b) is that it sounds nice but nobody can tell me how evolution, mutation and evolutionary pressure could work; what is the DNA of the physical laws?

Of course I cannot prove that other universes do not exist; nevertheless I would take c) as starting point and search for
i) a theory that describes this specific universe and
ii) a selection principle (could be consistency or something else)
[this would be MY research program - I don't want to force anybody to abandon other lines of research]
 
  • #105
@friend & fra: I think you are trying to do something like "finding the DNA for physical law".

I have no idea how I would start and I am not familiar with the ideas and research programs you are mentioning. However, it becomes clear that even if you want to avoid axioms and rules but try to let physical laws emerge from something "deeper", you need a set of rules. Logic is perhaps the simplest mathematical structure, but I am afraid that logic alone will do the job. And negotiation must follow some logic, too. So it's at least logic that serves as a basis for you.

One remark: I am still not sure if we all understand what Tegmark wants to say. What does the small word "IS" mean? Is it absolute identity, not only isomorphism? Are the U(1) and the SUO(2) identical - or just isomorphic? Do they become strictly identical if I remove all "human baggage"? Is it correct, sufficient and reasonable to assume that there IS NOTHING ELSE but a relation between mathematical entities? He is not very explicit when it comes to relations to different philosophical schools ...
 
  • #106
tom.stoer said:
So it's at least logic that serves as a basis for you.

Sure, of course I kind of rely on some kind of logic in the general sense, but I thought that from the context the association to logic here was to ideas that mathematical consistency and deductive logic. Ie. that you can get to KNOW the certain laws by though along - no interaction. I beg to differ with that view.

The kind of logic I do rely on is loosely speaking inductive logic, not deductive logic. Clearly the traditional quantification of inductive reasoning is probability theory. Ariel and Jaynes makes this point strong. However, even the rules of inference themselves are not unique. Here I differ with them.

They formalise inductive reasoning, into probability theory and then use various bayesian or max entropy methods as the RULES of inference. But of course, the rule of inference is chosen and the isntant you choose the specific entropy measure. Similarly there are objections to bayes rule.

I am trying to generalise inductive reasoning, by suggesting that by taking the proper intrinsic view, other rules of inference other than bayesian and max ent method are possible, and bayesian and max end methods with a fixed entropy measure are NOT the optimal inferences. Sometimes they are of course, but it's not a general case.

I have hopes that quantum logic to mention one think should b4e satisfactory explain as a unique choice of optimal inference RULE in particular situations! But again, but understanding hte general case, I also expect to understand the generalisation of Quantum logic, which will help solve QG problems and unification.

So in a certain sense, I am looking for a mathematical reconstruction, but it is not possible to understand the motivation from a pure mathematical perspective. Also the ides suggested does contain self-referential elements, and the this self-interaction should amount to a kind of self-inference, a kind of self evolution.

I think a correspondence here in simple case would be that the schrödinger equation is really just the expected self-evolution, or the self-inference. The optimal inference when external feedback is taken into account is the collapse thing.

In this view there is as I see it no mystery with the collapse at all.

Given that I want to take this further than Ariel and Jayes, who basically reconstructs the same old continuum probability theory and use that as a basis for inference, one of my basic conjecture, is like theirs that the laws of physics ARE more or less the rules of rational inference. And the point is then tht the optimal inference is a matter of point of view, since the instrinsic view allows no external measures of optimality.

There are also the symmetry principles hidden here, symmetries are emergent as a result of interactions, and are not fundamental. Understanding the interactions here should in my expecation help explain why certain symmetries in the rules of rational inference are selected. And thus the symmetries of physical law.

I have understood that this is hard to convey. Having thought of this now for a new years I think the conceptual part is becoming pretty clear, but still I see that not many seem to connect, with a few exceptions. Probably because I do not know of any current papers that does exactly this. The related ideas are from smolins, evolving law, ariel caticha and ET jaynes, as well as some other. Olaf Dreyer has partly acknowledge the inside view.

I suppsed this will remain foggy until substantial progress is made.

Edit: I also associate time evolution with the inference processes. The relativity of time in relativity should be reproduced from the relativity of inference, as in the emergent symmetries. Note that both Jaynes and Olaf Dreyer belives that GR could be DERIVED from the proper reconstruction. I fully share this view, although I have a different view of the starting points. Instead of derive, I prefer to say emergent, and this emergence is a physical equilibration process.

/Fredrik
 
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  • #107
Obvious this talk about optimal inference and selection for inference rules, what is the assumption on the seleciton?

My conjecture is that the selection is the obvious one - rules that are destructive are disfavoured and those that are self-preserving and constructive (that grow more competitive) are selected for.

So the inference rule is the DNA of physical law IMO. But the DNa can not be fudnamental, clearly the DNA itself must have evolved as well. Thus I more think of different levels of this code.

So the rules of inference that are selcted in our universe and those that are optimally self-preserving. Ie. the game preserves itself.

I'm trying to model this by pondering how to construct optimal measures, that are basis for actions, given limited resources.

My starting point is the low end of the complexity scale, becuase here the options are finite, and then ponder what structure emergenes as the resources are scaled up. During this journey spacetime and it's symmetries should follow - I hope.

/Fredrik
 
  • #108
You have to define how a rule looks (or a law or whatever) like, and you have to define how the negotiation between rules (which are mathematical entities) looks like.

Can you explain how this approach could look like mathematically?

What are your symbols, relations, axioms etc.? How does a rule look like?

You have to define how "rules act on rules": you have a negotiation process for which you need rules; "rules acting on rules" can therefore be negotiation between physical laws, but it can also be the evolution of some physical entity.

How and when do which rules interact? How are two (or three? four?) interacting rules selected? How do they "come together"? How does the DNA look like? How does mutuation, crossing-over and spawning of new rules look like?

How do you count rules or members of classes of rules in order to decide which rules are successfull = dominant?

What will our universum be? One master rule or a colletction of the most successfull rules?

Don't you need a meta-rule which "initiates" this whole process - which then becomes part of it and is subject to negotiation as well? what are your initial conditions?
 
  • #109
tom.stoer said:
Regarding a non-mathematical axiom: take constant c in GR as an example: as long as you do not have the full developed GR based on manifolds it's hard to write this as a mathematical axiom; of course you can start with a local description which will eventually correspond to the tangent space, but you don't know this in advance. So take this as a an example.

Could you clarify?

c=1

so I don't see any problems with it. However, it reminds me about the question I wanted to ask about the parameters of the Standard Model. How do you expect the axctual values be explained by the TOE?

Say, Mass of Up Quark / Mass of Down Quark?

1. Some analytical expression (even very complicated) derived from TOE, say Mu/Md = sin(ln(2*pi) / sqrt(e))

2. It is just a parameter. It is an axiom. (possible justification using AP)

3. It is a parameter but it can vary (cosmic darwinisim, or alternatively superstiring theory with bulk, colliding branes giving birth to the universes with all possible combination of parameters, then AP)
 
  • #110
tom.stoer said:
One remark: I am still not sure if we all understand what Tegmark wants to say. What does the small word "IS" mean? Is it absolute identity, not only isomorphism? Are the U(1) and the SUO(2) identical - or just isomorphic? Do they become strictly identical if I remove all "human baggage"? Is it correct, sufficient and reasonable to assume that there IS NOTHING ELSE but a relation between mathematical entities? He is not very explicit when it comes to relations to different philosophical schools ...

Let me quote him (chapter Description versus equivalence)

Whereas the customary terminology in physics textbooks is that the external reality is described by mathematics, the MUH states that it is mathematics (more specifically, a mathematical structure). This corresponds to the “ontic” version of universal structural realism in the philosophical terminology of [14, 22]. If a future physics textbook contains
the TOE, then its equations are the complete description of the mathematical structure that is the external physical reality. We write is rather than corresponds to here, because if two structures are isomorphic, then there is no meaningful sense in which they are not one and the same [19]. From the definition of a mathematical structure (see Appendix A), it follows that if there is an isomorphism between a mathematical structure and another structure (a one-to-one correspondence between the two that respects the relations), then they are one and the same. If our external physical reality is isomorphic to a mathematical structure, it therefore fits the definition of being a mathematical structure.

If one rejects the ERH, one could argue that our universe is somehow made of stuff perfectly described by a mathematical structure, but which also has other properties
that are not described by it, and cannot be described in an abstract baggage-free way. This viewpoint, corresponding to the “epistemic” version of universal structural
realism in the philosophical terminology of [14, 22], would make Karl Popper turn in his grave, since those additional bells and whistles that make the universe nonmathematical by definition have no observable effects whatsoever.

I 100% agree and have nothing to add.
 
  • #111
Dmitry67 said:
Could you clarify?

c=1
you have to embed this statement in a context which you call "baggage". w/o context c=1 is meaningless; therefore you have to define the context mathematically as well. But no you have the problem that you
either have to specify (via an axiom) that spacetime is a 4-dim pseudo-Riemann manifold (but this is certainly not a nice and easy-to-beliece axiom)
or you have to find simpler axioms for which a formal definition makes sense.

Einstein had the c=1 "axiom" in mind but derived the context (pseudo-Riemann manifold) later. That's why I still think that it's a good example, at least for GR (possibly not for the ultimate theory).

Dmitry67 said:
How do you expect the axctual values be explained by the TOE?

Say, Mass of Up Quark / Mass of Down Quark?

1. Some analytical expression (even very complicated) derived from TOE, say Mu/Md = sin(ln(2*pi) / sqrt(e))

2. It is just a parameter. It is an axiom. (possible justification using AP)

3. It is a parameter but it can vary (cosmic darwinisim, or alternatively superstiring theory with bulk, colliding branes giving birth to the universes with all possible combination of parameters, then AP)
I don't know; the ToE must deliver both the value and the way how and why this value is produced:-)

1. I guess it will not be an analytical expression, but of course it could be the (implicit) solution of an explicit equation.

2. no!

3. Could be, but then I would prefer an answer why it's this value or at least some range. If somebody claims a kind of evolutionary process then she/he must specify the rules regarding evolutionary pressure, selection, spawning of baby-universes, cosmic DNA and all that.

Compare it to evolution in biology: Darwin had a couple of ideas (e.g. "survival of the fittest") and some mechanisms for selection (population, predators, ...). In the meantime we were able to figure out the rules for the DNA (at least partially).

I would expect something similar for a ToE claiming that a specific theory (or parameter set) emerges from an underlying structure (multiverse or whatever). What I have seen is that nobody was able to answer these questions so far. In string theory nobody is able to construct M-Theory, nor has anybody developed a clear idea what the mathematical structure of the landscape is, nor is there some kind of measure on the multiverse (you need a measure to count the population ...), nor do I see a clear prediction regarding spawning of baby universes etc.. There are some nice ideas, but sooner or later people start to wave their hands and cry for the anthropic principle.

The whole discussion did not start because of a clear fundamental principle but only because people where not able to do the calculations!
 
  • #112
Dmitry67 said:
Let me quote him (chapter Description versus equivalence) ... I 100% agree and have nothing to add.
OK, I got the point (missed it when I was reading the paper).

So he says that iff two entities are isomorphic to 100% and in all their aspects and properties, then they are identical. Therefore iff the universe can be described in pure mathematical language w/o any baggage, then the universe IS this mathematical structure - and the mathematical structure IS the universe.

I agree that from a purely mathematical point of view this is sound!

Of course it's misleading to discuss the simulation approach, as this approach explicitly introduces a meta-level to the simulation (the program plus its output), namely the simulation engine (HW, operating system, ...). The paper could very well live w/o these remarks.
 
  • #113
tom.stoer said:
Of course it's misleading to discuss the simulation approach, as this approach explicitly introduces a meta-level to the simulation (the program plus its output), namely the simulation engine (HW, operating system, ...). The paper could very well live w/o these remarks.

Well, he actually denies that it makes sense to talk about the simulation:
check pages 18-21
 
  • #114
tom.stoer said:
you have to embed this statement in a context which you call "baggage". w/o context c=1 is meaningless; therefore you have to define the context mathematically as well. But no you have the problem that you
either have to specify (via an axiom) that spacetime is a 4-dim pseudo-Riemann manifold (but this is certainly not a nice and easy-to-beliece axiom)
or you have to find simpler axioms for which a formal definition makes sense.

Einstein had the c=1 "axiom" in mind but derived the context (pseudo-Riemann manifold) later. That's why I still think that it's a good example, at least for GR (possibly not for the ultimate theory).

In SR and GR there is no 'c' if you work in Planks units.
"c" is a thing invented by humans, it does not have any fundamental meaning.

Like people used degrees to measure angles. But in mathematics it is more natural to use radians. So conversion constant for conversion from grads into radians does not have any fundamental meaning.

But again, any claims that c=1, x=3, space has 4 (10,11,26) dimensions can be encoded in a pure mathematical language. That is why the idea of Max Tegmark is so solid: I had never seen anything that could qualify as "physical" axiom. Something when can not be expressed - in principle ! - in mathematical language.

The only candidate is Smolin's "evolving law". It is pure handwaving without a single formula :) Sorry Fra
 
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  • #115
Dmitry67 said:
In SR and GR there is no 'c' if you work in Planks units ... "c" is a thing invented by humans, it does not have any fundamental meaning.
Really?

"c" has two meanings:
- it is a fundamental constant with the unit "m/sec"; this is somehow invented by us humans
- it is the speed of light (or better: propagation of signals); this is a result of the theory

It is interesting that even in GR locally the light cone = propagation of signals respects "c=1". That's not trivial but emerges from the theory.

Compare it to mass. You can argue that with "Planckmass=1" the meaning of mass dissapears. Still, GR is based on the assumption - and it reproduces this assumption - that inertial and gravitational mass are equal. This is non-trivial and emerges from the theory (I think it is not understood to 100% as GR does not always allow for an unabmiguous definition of mass).

Therefore I think that these two examples serve as non-mathematical axioms.
 
  • #116
tom.stoer said:
Really?
1
- it is the speed of light (or better: propagation of signals); this is a result of the theory

2
It is interesting that even in GR locally the light cone = propagation of signals respects "c=1". That's not trivial but emerges from the theory.

3
Compare it to mass. You can argue that with "Planckmass=1" the meaning of mass dissapears. Still, GR is based on the assumption - and it reproduces this assumption - that inertial and gravitational mass are equal.

1 if it is a RESULT of a theory then it is NOT an axiom!
2 same
3 Well, GR is not a final theory. In TOE mass is a tricky thing (HUP, virtual particles, Unruh effects-accelerated frames etc). So that equivalence should emerge from TOE as a result. Note that in QM equivalence principle does not work on short timescales (because time and mass do not commute) - another proof that that principle is not fundamental.
But even if we forget it we can still write Mg=Mi :)

Sorry, I don't see any physical axioms.
 
  • #117
tom.stoer said:
You have to define how a rule looks (or a law or whatever) like, and you have to define how the negotiation between rules (which are mathematical entities) looks like.

Can you explain how this approach could look like mathematically?

What are your symbols, relations, axioms etc.? How does a rule look like?

You have to define how "rules act on rules": you have a negotiation process for which you need rules; "rules acting on rules" can therefore be negotiation between physical laws, but it can also be the evolution of some physical entity.

How and when do which rules interact? How are two (or three? four?) interacting rules selected? How do they "come together"? How does the DNA look like? How does mutuation, crossing-over and spawning of new rules look like?

How do you count rules or members of classes of rules in order to decide which rules are successfull = dominant?

What will our universum be? One master rule or a colletction of the most successfull rules?

Don't you need a meta-rule which "initiates" this whole process - which then becomes part of it and is subject to negotiation as well? what are your initial conditions?

I think I've possibly got the swine flue or something and I feel a bit lame and fevery today. I'm supposed to go on a business trip on thursday so I'm hoping to rest and get rid of the fever before that.

I'l try to comment more later.

I've never tried to seriously present much of the specifics here for several reasons.

- As I understand you're not allowed to post personal research, except possibly in the indepdendnt research section.

- There is soo much left to do, that I consider it my own problem to sort it out. This is work in progress but I'm an amateur and progress is slow on hobby basis.

This is why I mainly try to *discuss* things at just an intellectually sound and conceptual level, which is within the guidelines as I understand. Another reason for this is that this is the motivation also for my CHOICE of mathematics.

I'll try to give you a some more hints later.

/Fredrik
 
  • #118
Dmitry67 said:
Sorry, I don't see any physical axioms.
They are there - directly in front of your eyes.

The weak equivalence principle = the universality of free fall = the equality of inertial and gravitational mass is a physical, non-mathematical axiom of GR. It has been formulated w/o a mathematical framework. Einstein then derived this framework = GR from which this principle (as a law) did emerge. The equation Mg=Mi as a starting point is mathematically nice but physically meaningless w/o specification of the framework.
 
  • #119
Fra said:
... so I'm hoping to rest and get rid of the fever before that.
Get well soon!

Fra said:
There is soo much left to do, that I consider it my own problem to sort it out. This is work in progress but I'm an amateur and progress is slow on hobby basis.
I fully understand your situation as mine is similar :-)

Thomas
 
  • #120
tom.stoer said:
They are there - directly in front of your eyes.

The weak equivalence principle = the universality of free fall = the equality of inertial and gravitational mass is a physical, non-mathematical axiom of GR. It has been formulated w/o a mathematical framework. Einstein then derived this framework = GR from which this principle (as a law) did emerge. The equation Mg=Mi as a starting point is mathematically nice but physically meaningless w/o specification of the framework.

no and no.

Equivalence principle, mach's principles etc were just a MOTIVATION to create a theory. It is cristally clear if we take SR:

2 axioms (in fact, observational fact) -> einsteins version of SR -> deeper understanding of spacetime (Minkovsky) -> 2 'axioms' now are derived from the formalism.

Lets return to Mg=Mi. Yes, it was an oversimplification. But if you insist... What EP says? That gravitational force is proportional to the mass? So, we get Mg/Mi and mass dissapears from the formula for the acceleration? Hence, in weak g fields objects fall with the same acceleration, correct?

Lets make it more formal. Fall=move. So 2 objects with different mass starting from the same point of 4D spacetime move by the same worldline trajectory, correct? But this result is rather trivial if we look at gravity as curved spacetime. How else it could be?

But even if was not trivial it is just a statement regarding the form of a worldline. So we get rid of the baggage about 'object', 'fall', etc etc. It is just mathematics and nothing more.
 

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