I Limit of the product of these two functions

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The discussion centers on the limit of the product of two functions, where one function, f(x), approaches zero as x approaches infinity, while the other, g(x) = sin(x), does not have a limit. It is asserted that the limit of the product f(x)g(x) also approaches zero under these conditions. An epsilon-delta proof is mentioned, indicating that |f(x)g(x)| is bounded by |f(x)|, which approaches zero. The Squeeze theorem is referenced as a foundational concept that supports this conclusion, although a specific theorem or textbook citation is not provided. Overall, the limit of the product of a function approaching zero and a bounded oscillating function is confirmed to be zero.
LagrangeEuler
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If we have two functions ##f(x)## such that ##\lim_{x \to \infty}f(x)=0## and ##g(x)=\sin x## for which ##\lim_{x \to \infty}g(x)## does not exist. Can you send me the Theorem and book where it is clearly written that
\lim_{x \to \infty}f(x)g(x)=0
I found that only for sequences, but it should be correct for functions also.
 
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LagrangeEuler said:
If we have two functions ##f(x)## such that ##\lim_{x \to \infty}f(x)=0## and ##g(x)=\sin x## for which ##\lim_{x \to \infty}g(x)## does not exist. Can you send me the Theorem and book where it is clearly written that
\lim_{x \to \infty}f(x)g(x)=0
I found that only for sequences, but it should be correct for functions also.
If ##g## is any bounded function then there is a straightforward epsilon-delta proof.
 
|f(x)g(x)| is bounded by |f(x)| goes to 0
 
I don't know of a specific place that states this exact problem, but this is an application of the Squeeze theorem which can be found in any calculus textbook.