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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Suppose i have an experiment which can give result 0,4 but that the probability p(4)<=1/sqrt(2).

Does this make sense in a frequentist approach since if i do the real experiment once and got 4 then the probability (statistics a posteriori) for 4 is 1 which is a dumb counterexample.

Does this make sense in a frequentist approach since if i do the real experiment once and got 4 then the probability (statistics a posteriori) for 4 is 1 which is a dumb counterexample.