Limits at infinity, lim xF(x) = L then lim (f(x)=0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the limit of a function F(x) as x approaches infinity, specifically examining the condition that if lim xF(x) = L for some real number L, then it follows that lim F(x) = 0 as x approaches infinity. The subject area is calculus, focusing on limits and asymptotic behavior of functions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants present attempts to prove the limit statement using ε-δ definitions and explore the implications of the limit condition. Some express uncertainty about their proofs and seek validation or clarification on specific steps. Others question the appropriateness of certain assumptions and the definitions used in the proofs.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their proofs and seeking feedback. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of ε-δ language, and there is an acknowledgment of undefined quantities in certain arguments. Multiple interpretations of the limit condition are being explored, but no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the formal definitions of limits and the implications of their proofs. There are mentions of specific ε values and the need for clarity in their application, indicating potential gaps in understanding the formalism required for rigorous proofs.

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Homework Statement



show that if F:(a,∞) -->R is such that lim xF(x) = L, x --> ∞, where L is in R, then lim F(x) = 0, x --> ∞.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



Let F:(a,∞) →R is such that lim xF(x) = L, x → infinity, where L is in R. Then there exists an α> 0 where given ε, there exist k(ε) for all x > k then ε > max{1 , ([L]+1)/x} Therefore [xF(x) - L] < 1 whenever x > α. Therefore [F(x)] < ([L]+1)/x. Thus [F(x)-0] < ε Then lim F(x) =0 as x → ∞. This is what I have but it doesn't look right to me.
 
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Proof: let f:(a,∞)→ℝ such that lim xf(x)=L where L in ℝ. Since lim xf(x) = L, there exists α>0 where |xf(x)-L| < 1 for all x > α. Therefore |f(x)|<(|L|+1)/x for x >α. Pick ε = m where there exist δ-neighborhood Vδ(c) of c and x is in A π Vδ(c), there exists m>0, m = |L|+1 then |f(x)| < M, for all X, therefore |f(x)-o|<M=
thus the limitx→∞ f(x) =0.

Does this proof make more sense? Am i still missing something?


kingstrick said:

Homework Statement



show that if F:(a,∞) -->R is such that lim xF(x) = L, x --> ∞, where L is in R, then lim F(x) = 0, x --> ∞.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Let F:(a,∞) →R is such that lim xF(x) = L, x → infinity, where L is in R. Then there exists an α> 0 where given ε, there exist k(ε) for all x > k then ε > max{1 , ([L]+1)/x} Therefore [xF(x) - L] < 1 whenever x > α. Therefore [F(x)] < ([L]+1)/x. Thus [F(x)-0] < ε Then lim F(x) =0 as x → ∞. This is what I have but it doesn't look right to me.
 
kingstrick said:
Proof: let f:(a,∞)→ℝ such that lim xf(x)=L where L in ℝ. Since lim xf(x) = L, there exists α>0 where |xf(x)-L| < 1 for all x > α. Therefore |f(x)|<(|L|+1)/x for x >α. Pick ε = m where there exist δ-neighborhood Vδ(c) of c and x is in A π Vδ(c), there exists m>0, m = |L|+1 then |f(x)| < M, for all X, therefore |f(x)-o|<M=
thus the limitx→∞ f(x) =0.

Does this proof make more sense? Am i still missing something?

You have some undefined quantities.

You can't simply pick the ε in the part where you prove that lim x→∞ f(x) = 0 .

It may help for you to state, in ε - M language, what it means that lim x→∞ f(x) = 0 .
 
This can be proved in one line.

Lt x->infinity
xf(x) =L (where L is finite)

So Lt x->infinity f(x) = L/x (How?)

What do you see??
 
emailanmol said:
This can be proved in one line.

Lt x->infinity
xf(x) =L (where L is finite)

So Lt x->infinity f(x) = L/x (How?)

What do you see??

I think i see L/x going to zero as x goes to infinity since L is finite.
 
Correct :-)
 
SammyS said:
You have some undefined quantities.

You can't simply pick the ε in the part where you prove that lim x→∞ f(x) = 0 .

It may help for you to state, in ε - M language, what it means that lim x→∞ f(x) = 0 .

just curious, what is meant by ε - M language?
 
kingstrick said:
just curious, what is meant by ε - M language?
Given an ε>0, there exists an integer, M, such for all x > M, ...
 
SammyS said:
Given an ε>0, there exists an integer, M, such for all x > M, ...

Thanks... I am an idiot!
 

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