Limits to Infinity: Exponential Function

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    Infinity Limits
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SUMMARY

The discussion centers around evaluating limits of exponential functions as they approach infinity. Participants confirm that for the limit of the function Limx->∞ e(x^2+2x+1)/(x^2-3), the correct approach is to first determine the limit of the argument (x^2+2x+1)/(x^2-3), which approaches 1, leading to e^1. Additionally, they discuss the limit limx->-∞ (x^2+2x+1)/(-x^2+4x+4), confirming it equals -1 by evaluating the coefficients of the highest powers. The conversation also touches on the application of L'Hôpital's Rule and the Squeeze Theorem for more complex limits.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with exponential functions and their properties
  • Knowledge of L'Hôpital's Rule for indeterminate forms
  • Ability to apply the Squeeze Theorem in limit evaluation
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of L'Hôpital's Rule in various limit scenarios
  • Learn about the Squeeze Theorem and its use in calculus
  • Explore advanced limit problems involving exponential functions
  • Review Taylor series expansions for approximating limits
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Students and educators in calculus, mathematicians interested in limit evaluation techniques, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of exponential functions and their limits.

  • #31
Four is killing me...

Confunction identities? <- nvm don't think that's it
 
Last edited:
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  • #32
multiply numerator and denominator by cos(x)+1.
 
  • #33
Ohhhhhhh, I tried that, but never thought about plugging in 0...fml

sin(x)/(cos(x)+1) ->

0/2=0

....wow (again)
 
  • #34
solution to 2 without using hospital or Taylor:
limx→inf (1+1/x)^x = e
<=> limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
<=> limx→0 ln(1+x)/x = 1
<=> limx→0 x - ln(1+x) = 0
<=> limx→0 (ex-1)/x = e^0 =1
 
  • #35
NeroKid said:
solution to 2 without using hospital or Taylor:
limx→inf (1+1/x)^x = e
<=> limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
<=> limx→0 ln(1+x)/x = 1
<=> limx→0 x - ln(1+x) = 0
<=> limx→0 (ex-1)/x = e^0 =1

I'm not quite following you. I know that (1+1/n)n = e as n->infinity
 
  • #36
u take the ln at the both side of limx --> inf (1+1/x)^x = e
and from there u switch to x' which equal to 1/x
 
  • #37
How did you get from here:
<=> limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
to here?:
<=> limx→0 ln(1+x)/x = 1
 
  • #38
limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
<=> lim(1/x)→0 xln(1+1/x)=1
call x' = 1/x
limx'→0 ln(1+x')/x' =1
 
  • #39
NeroKid said:
limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
<=> lim(1/x)→0 xln(1+1/x)=1
call x' = 1/x
limx'→0 ln(1+x')/x' =1

Ok, I see.
Thanks
 
  • #40
Lastly,

How did you get these two steps?

<=> limx→0 ln(1+x')/x' = 1
<=> limx→0 x - ln(1+x) = 0
 
Last edited:
  • #41
because limx→0 ln(1+x)/x = 1 and limx→0 ln(1+x) = 0 and limx→0 x =0
so limx→0 ln(1+x) = limx→0 x
 
  • #42
Got it. Thanks
 

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