Limits to Infinity: Exponential Function

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Four is killing me...

Confunction identities? <- nvm don't think that's it
 
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Ohhhhhhh, I tried that, but never thought about plugging in 0...fml

sin(x)/(cos(x)+1) ->

0/2=0

....wow (again)
 
solution to 2 without using hospital or Taylor:
limx→inf (1+1/x)^x = e
<=> limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
<=> limx→0 ln(1+x)/x = 1
<=> limx→0 x - ln(1+x) = 0
<=> limx→0 (ex-1)/x = e^0 =1
 
NeroKid said:
solution to 2 without using hospital or Taylor:
limx→inf (1+1/x)^x = e
<=> limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
<=> limx→0 ln(1+x)/x = 1
<=> limx→0 x - ln(1+x) = 0
<=> limx→0 (ex-1)/x = e^0 =1

I'm not quite following you. I know that (1+1/n)n = e as n->infinity
 
u take the ln at the both side of limx --> inf (1+1/x)^x = e
and from there u switch to x' which equal to 1/x
 
How did you get from here:
<=> limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
to here?:
<=> limx→0 ln(1+x)/x = 1
 
limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
<=> lim(1/x)→0 xln(1+1/x)=1
call x' = 1/x
limx'→0 ln(1+x')/x' =1
 
NeroKid said:
limx→inf xln(1+1/x) =1
<=> lim(1/x)→0 xln(1+1/x)=1
call x' = 1/x
limx'→0 ln(1+x')/x' =1

Ok, I see.
Thanks
 
Lastly,

How did you get these two steps?

<=> limx→0 ln(1+x')/x' = 1
<=> limx→0 x - ln(1+x) = 0
 
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because limx→0 ln(1+x)/x = 1 and limx→0 ln(1+x) = 0 and limx→0 x =0
so limx→0 ln(1+x) = limx→0 x