How Do You Prove the Existence of an Improper Integral?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter saint_n
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on proving the existence of improper integrals, particularly when integrating from finite bounds to infinity. The integral of 1/x diverges as the upper limit approaches infinity, indicating non-existence, while the integral of 1/x^2 converges, demonstrating existence. For integrals over the entire real line, such as sin(x), the discussion highlights that different intervals yield varying results, confirming non-existence. The challenge of evaluating the integral of sin(x)/x from zero to infinity is also addressed, emphasizing the use of alternating series for analysis.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of improper integrals
  • Familiarity with limits and convergence
  • Knowledge of basic calculus, particularly integration techniques
  • Experience with series and their convergence properties
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the concept of convergence in improper integrals
  • Learn about the comparison test for improper integrals
  • Explore the properties of the sine integral function
  • Investigate the use of alternating series in evaluating integrals
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, calculus instructors, and anyone interested in advanced integration techniques and the analysis of improper integrals.

saint_n
Messages
31
Reaction score
0
limits..proving they exist?

Wot do u have to do to prove that an intergral exists.?? I know how to do it if the integrals bounds are given ( example, [a,b]) but wot if the integral is from x till infinity??
 
Physics news on Phys.org
In the same wasy as infinite sums, work out the integral from a to b and then let b tend to infinity. Eg
integral of 1/x from a to b is log(b) - log(a), which tends to infinity as b tends to infinity so the integral doesn't exist.
integral of 1/x^2 from a to be is 1/a^2-1/b^2, which tends to 1/a^2 as b tends to infinity so the infinite integral exists.

If you wish to integrate from minus infinity to infinity, you must do the integral from a to b and let a and b tend to infinity independently.

Thus the improper integral of sin(x) over the real line does not exist even though you can choose the interval to be [-a,a] and get an answer of zero (other choices will give different answers hence the integral does not exist)
 
How will you do
\int\frac{sinx}{x}dx
from zero to infinity.
Which can be written as a alternating series
T subscript n =\mid\int\frac{sinx}{x}dx\mid over intervals ((n-1)\pi,n\pi)
but how do show as n tends to infinity that T(n) tends to 0?
cos i can't integrate it
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 66 ·
3
Replies
66
Views
7K