Linear functionals on a normed vector space

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of bounded linear functionals in normed vector spaces, specifically addressing the question of whether a vector \( x \) in a normed vector space \( X \) must be zero if every functional \( f \) in the dual space \( X^* \) evaluates to zero at \( x \). The scope includes theoretical exploration and implications of the Hahn-Banach theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether \( x = 0 \) is the only solution if \( f(x) = 0 \) for all \( f \in X^* \), expressing uncertainty about the existence of a normed space where this might not hold.
  • Another participant suggests considering the expansion of \( x \) in terms of a basis and its dual, raising the issue of whether a dual basis exists.
  • A third participant introduces the Hahn-Banach theorem, asserting that it provides a continuous functional that can demonstrate the property in question, but notes that similar results may not hold in metric spaces.
  • A later reply acknowledges the relevance of the Hahn-Banach theorem, indicating it aligns with the initial inquiry.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the necessity of \( x \) being zero under the given conditions, with some supporting the assertion through the Hahn-Banach theorem while others remain skeptical about the generality of the claim.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the dependency on the existence of a dual basis and the implications of the Hahn-Banach theorem, as well as the potential limitations when considering metric spaces.

AxiomOfChoice
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I have a question: If x\in X is a normed vector space, X^* is the space of bounded linear functionals on X, and f(x) = 0 for every f\in X^*, is it true that x = 0? I'm reasonably confident this has to be the case, but why? The converse is obviously true, but I don't see why there couldn't be an example of a normed space for which all the functionals in X^* are zero at some other value of x...
 
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Start by considering expanding x in a basis, dual some basis of X^*. Clearly for the basis \{f_k\} and dual basis \{e^k\}(if there is one) of X you have x = x_k e^k where x_k = f_k(x).

The question then becomes whether there exists such a dual basis. You don't have to worry about considering every element of X^* but rather only a basis. Finally the fact that you have a metric space may shed some light on this question.
 
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You will need the Hahn-Banach theorem for this. It states exactly what you want:


If V is a normed vector space and if z is in V, then there is a continuous function such that f(z)=\|z\| and such that \|f\|\leq 1.​

The correspond result for metric spaces may fail. For example

L^{1/2}(\mathbb{R})=\{f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}~\vert~\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}{\sqrt{f}}<+\infty\}

with metric

d(f,g)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}{\sqrt{f-g}}

is a metric vector space such that 0 is its only continuous functional!
 
micromass said:
You will need the Hahn-Banach theorem for this. It states exactly what you want:


If V is a normed vector space and if z is in V, then there is a continuous function such that f(z)=\|z\| and such that \|f\|\leq 1.​

Haha...yep, that's perfect! Thanks a lot!
 

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