vanhees71 said:1. Nothing I said, contradicts, what's said by Zeilinger above. There are of course nonlocal correlations, described by entanglement, but there are nowhere nonlocal interactions needed to explain entanglement swapping or teleportation.
My view is very mainstream physics: According to relativistic QFT all the Bell-test experiments can be described correctly using a theory based on the assumption that there are no faster-than-light causal influences, which is achieved by making the interactions described by this class of QFTs strictly local (i.e., the Hamilton density is commuting with all local observables at space-like differences of their arguments).
vanhees71 said:2. I don't understand, what you describe by 1.-4. To which experimental setup do you refer and what are the time (?) stamps T?
1. And for the Nth time: you quote yourself when addressing the fact that your view is not mainstream. Where is that quote? And please, something verbatim is called for - not one of your "read any book" references. If you are mainstream, why haven't I seen anything like that in the last 100+ recent papers I have read? I won't respond further to you until you supply a suitable quote supporting your position.
There *is* "something" occurring (quantum) nonlocally. No one knows the mechanism. If it was simply a matter of correlations, as you say, then everyone would agree and we wouldn't be discussing. However, teleportation is a nonlocal effect from start to finish.
2. Bell test with entanglement swapping to create the entangled pair. Read my reference, post #62 for example. You know this perfectly well, but deny its significance. You cannot entangle particles that have never existed in a common spacetime cone without a nonlocal effect of some type.