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Lorentz factor for particle moving at angle

  1. Oct 15, 2011 #1
    It's not a homework question, but I noticed on this webpage;


    near the very bottom there is a section entitled, "What, therefore, would r & θ appear to be to an observor in relatively moving S'?"

    Example 1

    the formula then states:

    tanθ' = u'y / u'x I understand why they're doing this. Though after this, can anyone explain the next part of the progression? Why have they applied a γ to the denominator of u'y but not to u'x ?

    Thank you
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 15, 2011 #2


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    They're just applying the formulas derived in the previous section. Do you understand the derivation?
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