Undergrad "Magic" regulating functions for divergent series

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The recent Numberphile video revisits the controversial result of -1/12, discussing the existence of various regulating functions that can converge to this value without discarding infinities. A question raised is whether a regulating function that integrates to zero at infinity qualifies as a "magic" function, though this is not confirmed in the video. There is skepticism about the significance of this concept, suggesting that if it were truly groundbreaking, more resources would be available online beyond just the Numberphile video. The discussion reflects on the complexity of articulating mathematical concepts and the nostalgia of revisiting previous discussions. Overall, the thread highlights curiosity and uncertainty surrounding the implications of these mathematical ideas.
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This recent video on Numberphile revisits -1 / 12 😱 after a hiatus of nearly 10 years.



One point that they make is that there are infinitely many choices of regulating function that converge directly to the correct value (e.g. -1/12) without having to throw away "infinities" or terms of order N, N^2 etc.

Q1 : Is it true that:- If we choose a regulating function and then look at the integral corresponding to the weighted sum, and if that integral taken to infinity is zero, then that regulating function is a "magic" one? (They don't say so in the video).

Q2: If the above is true, is this particular aspect really a profound advance, or are they hyping it up just a little bit for YouTube?
 
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No Numberphile went back to ##-\frac{1}{12}## again!? Seriously?! Last time it created such a faff...

My very limited maths knowledge means that I can't help on Q1 - but for Q2 I can imagine that this is the case, if it were so profound of an advance, there should be more on the internet than a Numberphile video about it (and I can't seem to find a ton of stuff about it on the internet about it, but maybe that's just my abysmal internet searching skills coming in)
 
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TensorCalculus said:
No Numberphile went back to ##-\frac{1}{12}## again!? Seriously?! Last time it created such a faff...

My very limited maths knowledge means that I can't help on Q1 - but for Q2 I can imagine that this is the case, if it were so profound of an advance, there should be more on the internet than a Numberphile video about it (and I can't seem to find a ton of stuff about it on the internet about it, but maybe that's just my abysmal internet searching skills coming in)

It's a while since I posted those questions, and it took me a minute to even understand Q1. Which could mean I haven't worded it very clearly.

Edit: I think it would be clearer to just say "if a candidate function for the regulating function integrates to zero ... "

Edit again: No, that isn't right. It's the product of the regulating function and the envelope function that defines the terms to be summed. That product has to integrate to zero from 0 to infinity. In the case of 1+2+3.. the envelope function is f(n) = n, so the product is trivially the regulating function itself.

I think.
 
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Swamp Thing said:
It's a while since I posted those questions, and it took me a minute to even understand Q1. Which could mean I haven't worded it very clearly.

Edit: I think it would be clearer to just say "if a candidate function for the regulating function integrates to zero ... "

Edit again: No, that isn't right. It's the product of the regulating function and the envelope function that defines the terms to be summed. That product has to integrate to zero from 0 to infinity. In the case of 1+2+3.. the envelope function is f(n) = n, so the product is trivially the regulating function itself.

I think.
Ah yes: I just realised the date.
Either way, I had no idea that Numberphile went back to -1/12 after so many years... I don't know what to make of that haha.

Even with a clearly worded q1... doubt I would have been able to help haha :D
But it's probably fun coming back after a year and a bit and looking back on how you worded the questions and seeing how you could have done it better!
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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