Magnetic field above a thin charged disc

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the magnetic field above a rotating thin charged disc using the Biot-Savart Law. The surface charge density is denoted as \(\sigma\), and the disc rotates with angular frequency \(\omega\). The derived magnetic field along the z-axis is given by \(\vec{B}(z) = \mu_{0} \pi \sigma \omega \left(\frac{2z^{2} + R^2}{\sqrt{z^{2} + R^{2}}} - 2z\right) \hat{k}\). Participants emphasized the importance of using proper notation in LaTeX and suggested alternative methods such as Ampere's law for evaluating the magnetic field.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Biot-Savart Law for magnetic fields
  • Familiarity with surface charge density concepts
  • Knowledge of angular frequency and its implications in electromagnetism
  • Proficiency in LaTeX for mathematical notation
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Biot-Savart Law for surface current densities
  • Learn how to apply Ampere's Law in cylindrical coordinates
  • Explore the use of vector potentials in calculating magnetic fields
  • Investigate integration techniques for evaluating complex integrals in electromagnetism
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Students and professionals in physics, particularly those focusing on electromagnetism, as well as educators looking for clear examples of magnetic field calculations involving rotating charged bodies.

russdot
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Homework Statement


A thin disc of radius R carries a surface charge \sigma. It rotates with angular frequency \omega about the z axis, which is perpendicular to the disc and through its center. What is B along the z axis?


Homework Equations


General Biot-Savart law:
B(x) = \frac{\mu_{0}}{4\pi}\int\frac{J(x') x (x-x')}{|x-x'|}d^{3}x'

K \equiv \frac{dI}{dl_{perpendicular}}
K = \sigmav


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm wondering if the general form Biot-Savart law can be 'generalized' to a 2-D surface current density K instead, and if the form would be the same?
Giving:
B(x) = \frac{\mu_{0}}{4\pi}\int\frac{K(x') x (x-x')}{|x-x'|}d^{2}x'
 
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I don't follow your equations, you aren't using a standard notation. Regardless, you don't need to use a surface current. You can treat every infinitesimal interval of radius dr as a loop of current. Integrate the equation for field from a current loop over r from 0 to R
 
Hi russdot, try using \vec{B} instead of B in your LaTeX equations, and put the whole equation in LaTeX to make it easier to read.

The Biot-Savart Law for a surface current is:

\vec{B}(\vec{r})=\frac{\mu _0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{\vec{K}(\vec{r'}) \times \widehat{\vec{r}-\vec{r'}}}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r'}|^2} d^3r'

Such integrals are tedious to evaluate, so if you are allowed to use Ampere's law or calculate the vector potential \vec{A} first, I would do that.
 
Hi gabbagabbahey,
Thanks for the tips, I'm still getting used to the LaTeX notation.

marcusl,
Ok, and then each infinitesimal loop will have a current I = \sigma 2 \pi R dr.
 
russdot said:
Hi gabbagabbahey,
Thanks for the tips, I'm still getting used to the LaTeX notation.

marcusl,
Ok, and then each infinitesimal loop will have a current I = \sigma 2 \pi R dr.

You're welcome:smile:

Shouldn't each loop have a current of 2 \pi r \sigma \omega dr?:wink:
 
Ah yes, I really should eat some food...
but since \vec{I} = \lambda \vec{v}
and \lambda = \sigma 2 \pi dr
and \vec{v} = r \vec{\omega}
then \vec{I} = \sigma 2 \pi \vec{\omega} r dr, correct?
 
Yep, looks good to me (my sigma didn't show up right the first time)...what then is the magnetic field of each loop? What do you get for the total magnetic field?
 
gabbagabbahey said:
what then is the magnetic field of each loop?
For the magnetic field of each loop (along Z axis), I get:
\vec{B}(z) = \frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \int \frac{\sigma 2 \pi \omega x'^{2} (\hat{\phi} \times \hat{r})dx'd\phi}{x'^{2} + z^{2}}
where \hat{\phi} \times \hat{\r} = \hat{k}cos\psi + \hat{R}sin\psi
(\psi is the angle between\vec{r} = \vec{x} - \vec{x}' and \hat{R} where \hat{R} is the cylindrical radial unit vector)

the sin\psi term integrates out to zero, because \hat{R} = \hat{i}cos\phi + \hat{j}sin\phi and I used the trig substitution cos\psi = \frac{x'}{\sqrt{x'^{2} + z^{2}}}

\vec{B}(z) = \mu_{0} \pi \sigma \omega \int_{0}^{R} \frac{ x'^{3} dx'}{(x'^{2} + z^{2})^{3/2}} \hat{k}

gabbagabbahey said:
What do you get for the total magnetic field?
Which gives a total magnetic field:
\vec{B}(z) = \mu_{0} \pi \sigma \omega (\frac{2z^{2} + R^2}{\sqrt{z^{2} + R^{2}}} - 2z) \hat{k}
 
Uhm... wouldn't the current flowing through an infinitesimal loop be the charge divided by a period T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega} ?
so
i=\sigma\omega rdr

P.s: how did you resolve the integral? Substituction with sinh(t) ? Are there any faster method?
 
Last edited:

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