Magnetic field by ideal toroidal solenoid

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the magnetic field generated by an ideal toroidal solenoid using the Biot-Savart law, explicitly avoiding Ampère's circuital law. The user presents a parametrization of the torus and formulates the magnetic field expression involving integrals over the toroidal geometry. They also mention the vector potential in the Coulomb gauge and derive the magnetic field components, concluding that the field is zero outside the torus and has specific values within the defined region. The user seeks validation of their calculations and assistance with the integral involved.

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  • Familiarity with vector calculus and integral equations
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  • Experience with magnetic vector potentials and their applications
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DavideGenoa
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I am trying to calculate the magnetic field generated by an ideal toroidal solenoid by using the integral of the Biot-Savart law. I do not intend to use Ampère's circuital law.
Let ##I## be the intensity of the current flowing in each of the ##N## loops of the solenoid, which I will consider an ideal continuous solenoid from this point.
If ##\mathbf{r}(u,v):[0,2\pi]^2\to\mathbb{R}^3##, ##\mathbf{r}(u,v)=(b+a\cos v)\cos u\mathbf\,{i}+(b+a\cos v)\sin u\,\mathbf{j}+a\sin v\mathbf\,{k}## is a parametrization of the torus, I would say that, in an "infinitesimal spire" of the ideal solenoid, generated by the rotation of ##du## radians of the circumference generating the torus, an "infinitesimal current" ##\frac{IN}{2\pi}du## flows and therefore I would think that the magnetic field at ##\mathbf{x}## could be expressed by $$\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{IN \,\partial_v\mathbf{r}(u,v) \times(\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{r}(u,v) )}{2\pi\|\mathbf{x}-\mathbf{r}(u,v)\|^3} dudv.$$
Am I right?
I thank anybody for any answer.
 
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I think everything looks good, but maybe it's simpler to use the (Coulomb gauge) vector potential, which is given as
$$\vec{A}(\vec{x})=\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \mathrm{d}^3 \vec{x}' \frac{\vec{j}(\vec{x}')}{|\vec{x}-\vec{x}'|},$$
and then the magnetic field by
$$\vec{B} = \vec{\nabla} \times \vec{A}.$$
Note, however that in this case, due to the symmetry of the field, the use of Ampere's Law in integral form is much simpler here.
 
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Thank you so much for your answer! By explicitly writing the formula, I find that, for a point ##\mathbf{x}=x\mathbf{i}+z\mathbf{k}##, the ##x## and ##z## components of the field ##\mathbf{B}## are zero because of reasons of symmetry and $$\mathbf{B}(x,0,z)=\frac{\mu_0 IN}{8\pi^2}\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{ax\cos v-ab\cos u\cos v-a^2\cos u+az\cos u\sin v}{(x^2+b^2+a^2+z^2-2x(b+a\cos v)\cos u+2ab\cos v-2az\sin v)^{3/2}}dudv\mathbf{k}$$which, if it agrees with the result given by my books for an ideal solenoid, should be zero at the exterior of the torus and ##-\frac{\mu_0 NI}{2\pi x}\mathbf{j}## for ##z=0##, ##|x|\in (b-a,b+a)## where ##a## is the radius of the circular section of the torus.
Are my calculation correct until now? If they are, I find the integral quite difficult... Has anybody any idea of how to calculate it?
I ##\infty##-ly thank you all!
 

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