Magnetic field by infinite wire: convergence of integral

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the convergence of the integral defining the magnetic field generated by an infinitely long wire carrying current I, expressed as $$\boldsymbol{B}(\boldsymbol{x})=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi}\int_\gamma\frac{d\boldsymbol{l}\times(\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l})}{\|\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l}\|^3}$$. It is established that the integral does not converge in general, particularly when the curve is a circular loop, leading to an infinite number of loops and thus divergence. The conversation also touches on the conditions necessary for applying Ampère's law, indicating that stricter assumptions on the curve γ are required beyond mere piecewise smoothness.

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DavideGenoa
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Let ##\boldsymbol{l}:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}^3## be the piecewise smooth parametrization of an infinitely long curve ##\gamma\subset\mathbb{R}^3##. Let us define $$\boldsymbol{B}(\boldsymbol{x})=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi}\int_\gamma\frac{d\boldsymbol{l}\times(\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l})}{\|\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l}\|^3}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\frac{\boldsymbol{l}'(t)\times(\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l}(t))}{\|\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l}(t)\|^3}dt.$$A physical interpretation of the integral is that ##\boldsymbol{B}## represents the magnetic field generated by an infinitely long wire ##\gamma## carrying a current ##I##, whith ##\mu_0## representing vacuum permeabilty.

Can we be sure that the integral converges in general and, if we can, how can it be proved?

I am posting here rather than in calculus because I suppose that the best way to approach the problem is by using the techniques of Lebesgue integration.

I notice that every component of the integral is the difference of two terms having the form ##l_i'(t)(x_j-l_i(t))\|\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l}(t)\|^{-3}##, and I see that ##|l_i'(t)(x_j-l_i(t))|\|\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l}(t)\|^{-3}\le |l_i'(t)||x_j-l_i(t)|^{-2}##, but the absolute value does not allow me to use the rule ##l_i'(t)dt=dl_i##...

Thank you so much for any answer!
 
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DavideGenoa said:
Can we be sure that the integral converges in general and, if we can, how can it be proved?
No, it is relatively easy to construct a counter-example. For example, consider the case when your curve just is a circular loop going round and round. A single turn of the loop will result in a finite magnetic field, but you have an infinite number of loops and the integral therefore does not converge.
 
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Orodruin said:
No, it is relatively easy to construct a counter-example.
Then, when we state laws like Ampère's ##\oint\boldsymbol{B}\cdot d\boldsymbol{x}=\mu_0 I_{\text{enclosed}}## with ##\boldsymbol{B}(\boldsymbol{x})=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi}\int_\gamma\frac{d\boldsymbol{l}\times(\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l})}{\|\boldsymbol{x}-\boldsymbol{l}\|^3}## I suppose we impose other, stricter, assumption on ##\gamma## than its piecewise smoothness. What other conditions?
I heartily thank you and anybody wishing to add for your answer(s)!
 

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