Magnetic field of rotating sphere

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around calculating the magnetic field at the center of a uniformly charged rotating sphere with charge density ρ and angular velocity ω. The initial solution provided in the manual is B = (1/3) μ₀ ρ ω R², which the poster struggles to derive. They attempt to model the sphere as a collection of disks, leading to a derived formula of B = (4/3) μ₀ ρ ω R² after integrating over the entire sphere. Other participants suggest that the integration method may be flawed due to symmetry considerations and recommend integrating over half the sphere instead. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the distribution of charge in relation to the magnetic field generated.
issacnewton
Messages
1,035
Reaction score
37
Hi

I have to find the magnetic field at the center of a rotating sphere
which has unifrom charge density \rho on it. The sphere
is rotating with angular velocity \omega . The answer given
in the solution manual is

B= \frac{1}{3} \mu_o \rho \omega R^2

I didn't get this value. Let me present my work here. I first found the
magnetic field at the center of a disk, which has uniform charge density
\sigma on it. After this, I extend this to the solid sphere as
collection of disks. Now the magnetic field at the center of a ring of radius
r , is

B = \frac{\mu_o I r^2}{2(x^2+r^2)^{\frac{3}{2}}}

where x is the distance of some point on the axis of the ring from
the center of the ring. If the ring is rotating with angular velocity
\omega, then the current , I , is

I = \frac{q ' \omega}{2 \pi}

Now, if this ring is the part of a disk, then we have

q ' = \sigma (2\pi r) dr

plugging everything we have, the magnetic field due to a ring, which is
a part of the disk, at a distance x (from the center) on the axis of the ring is

dB= \frac{\mu_o \omega \sigma}{2} \,\, \frac{r^3 \, dr}{\left(x^2+r^2 \right)^{\frac{3}{2}}}

Now , we integrate this from r=0 to r=R , which is the radius of the
disk.

B= \frac{\mu_o \omega \sigma}{2}\,\, \int_0^R \frac{r^3 \, dr}{\left(x^2+r^2 \right)^{\frac{3}{2}}}

after integrating , I got the magnetic field , B , of the disk , at a distance
x from the center of the disk, on its axis

B= \frac{\mu_o \omega \sigma}{2}\,\, \left[ \frac{2x^2+R^2}{(x^2+R^2)^{\frac{1}{2}}} - 2x \right ]

Now , the sphere can be thought as a collection of disks. Let's consider the disk, at an angle
\theta from the z-axis. So the radius of the disk would be R \sin \theta.
The thickness of the disk would be R \,d \theta \, \sin \theta . I think I got the thickness
right. I am not sure about that. So the relationship between the surface charge density
on the disk and the volume charge density in the sphere is

\sigma = \rho \, R \,\, d\theta (\sin \theta)

So , dimensionally this makes sense. So plugging these values in the expression for
the magnetic field due to disk, I get

dB=\frac{\mu_o \omega }{2} (\rho R d \theta \sin \theta) \left[R(1+\cos^2 \theta) - 2R \cos \theta \right]

So we integrate this from \theta = 0 to \theta = \pi to cover the whole sphere.
And I get

B= \frac{4}{3} \mu_o \rho \omega R^2

But as I said earlier, the reas answer is given as

B=\frac{1}{3} \mu_o \rho \omega R^2

So where am I going wrong ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Your method seems fine until the end, when you integrate over theta. Instead of integrating over the whole sphere, try finding the magnetic field due to half the sphere, then simply doubling that.

That said, I'm not quite sure why that works while your method doesn't. My intuition would be that something funny is happening with the -2R\cos(\theta) term in dB. If you think about it conceptually, a disc at \theta = \pi/4 should produce a magnetic field of the same magnitude as a disc at \theta = 3\pi/4}. In terms of the magnitude of the magnetic field, the entire sphere should be symmetric across the \theta = \pi/2 plane. However, the cosine term I mentioned above will flip signs as one crosses this plane, causing the magnitude of the field given by your equation to be asymmetric. I'll leave it up to someone smarter and less sleep-deprived than me to explain why this issue exists.
 
If the charge is uniformly distributed ... worth some thought.
 
Leveret,

thanks for the input but I am not convinced by what you're trying to say.
What funny thing is happening ?

Chronos, what is worth some thought ?
 
As I understand electrostatics, if you electrically charge a sphere, whether it is massive or not, all electrical charge will be located at the outside of the sphere.
I remember that you can proof this.

So I believe you shouldn't use disks, but rings.
Each ring would have a radius r = √(R²-z²) and a thickness Rdθ.
Each ring would then have a charge 2πρrRdθ.

Next you would integrate z from -R to +R.

Effectively the charge would be further away from the center, resulting in a lower value for B.
 
I like Serena said:
As I understand electrostatics, if you electrically charge a sphere, whether it is massive or not, all electrical charge will be located at the outside of the sphere.

Well, that's true for a conducting sphere. I don't think we have a conducting sphere. The problem explicitly mentions that charge is uniformly distributed over all volume.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

Replies
8
Views
1K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
608
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
1K
Replies
11
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
3K