- Problem Statement
- Calculate the net magnetic force on I2 due to I1
- Relevant Equations
Fmag = I * ([a] x [B1])
[a] is a vector representing the length and direction of the wire carrying I2.
[B1] is the magnetic field vector due to I1 (Please see figure.)
I just need to confirm my intuition that the magnetic force on the wire carrying I2 is 0.
Basis for my intuition:
* Right above the center of the loop carrying I1, the magnetic field lines are in exactly the same direction as the piece of wire carrying I2, so [a] x [B1] = 0.
* I2's own magnetic field is curling around it (Biot-Savart law and Ampere's law), and never goes through it, meaning an external field that actually goes through the wire will have no effect on it.
Note: only the shown section of the wire carrying current I2 is to be considered in calculations.
Is my intuition correct?