- #1
surferdude89
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Homework Statement
Hello All,
This question is a problem I ran across and I am working on for practice, but I am having a rough time getting started because of not understanding the context of the problem, Some help would be greatly appreciated in understanding the question.
Suppose $\mathbf{A}$ is an $n \times n$ matrix with (not necessarily distinct) eigenvalues $\lambda_{1}, \lambda_{2}, \ldots, \lambda_{n}$. Can it be shown that the *polynomial matrix*
$p( \mathbf{A} ) = k_{m} \mathbf{A}^{m}+k_{m-1} \mathbf{A}^{m-1}+\ldots+k_{1} \mathbf{A} +k_{0} \mathbf{I} $
has the eigenvalues
$p(\lambda_{j}) = k_{m}{\lambda_{j}}^{m}+k_{m-1}{\lambda_{j}}^{m-1}+\ldots+k_{1}\lambda_{j}+k_{0}$
where $j = 1,2,\ldots,n$ and the same eigenvectors as $\mathbf{A}$.
Thank You.
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
If $X$ is an eigenvector of $A$, say $AX=\lambda X$, then we can use that to simplify $p(A)X$ into $(\text{some scalar value})*X$, and that scalar in front of the $X$ is then an eigenvalue of $p(A)$, corresponding to the eigenvector $X$.
This is in LaTeX format of writting. I am not sure this site supports it. Let's see.