- #1
Physics Slayer
- 26
- 8
- Homework Statement
- Don't understand one of the steps in partial fraction decomposition.
- Relevant Equations
- -
Say you want to find the following Integrals
$$\int \frac{1}{(x-1)(x+2)} (dx)$$
$$\int \frac{1}{(x-1)(x^2 + 2)} (dx)$$
The easiest way to solve them will be by using partial fraction decomposition on both the given functions.
Decomposing the first function,
$$\frac{1}{(x-1)(x+2)} = \frac{A}{x-1}+\frac{B}{x+2}$$
And then decomposing the second function
$$ \frac{1}{(x-1)(x^2+2)} = \frac{A}{x-1} + \frac{Bx + C}{x^2+2} $$
We can then solve for the constants(##A,B,C##) by setting convenient values of ##x##.
So my doubt is why don't we set the numerator for the first function as ##(Ax+B)## our teacher told us that as a rule of thumb whenever you are using partial fraction decomposition first make sure you are dealing with a proper fraction and then set the degree of x in the numerator one less than the degree of x in the denominator, what I think he meant by this is,
$$\frac{f(x)}{(x^n + a)(x^m + b)} = \frac{k_{n}x^{n-1}+k_{n-1}x^{n-2}+ ... +k_{2}x + k_1}{x^n + a}+\frac{r_{m}x^{m-1}+r_{m-1}x^{m-2}+...+r_{2}x + r_1}{x^m + b}$$
Where ##f(x)## can be any arbitrary polynomial function, we can solve for the constants ##k_n,k_{n-1},...,k_2, k_1## and ##r_m, r_{m-1},...r_2,r_1##by setting different continent values of ##x##.
He didn't give any reasoning to the part in bold, I can see that this method works and I have bashed many integrals using the partial fraction decomposition method but I still don't understand the logic behind it.
$$\int \frac{1}{(x-1)(x+2)} (dx)$$
$$\int \frac{1}{(x-1)(x^2 + 2)} (dx)$$
The easiest way to solve them will be by using partial fraction decomposition on both the given functions.
Decomposing the first function,
$$\frac{1}{(x-1)(x+2)} = \frac{A}{x-1}+\frac{B}{x+2}$$
And then decomposing the second function
$$ \frac{1}{(x-1)(x^2+2)} = \frac{A}{x-1} + \frac{Bx + C}{x^2+2} $$
We can then solve for the constants(##A,B,C##) by setting convenient values of ##x##.
So my doubt is why don't we set the numerator for the first function as ##(Ax+B)## our teacher told us that as a rule of thumb whenever you are using partial fraction decomposition first make sure you are dealing with a proper fraction and then set the degree of x in the numerator one less than the degree of x in the denominator, what I think he meant by this is,
$$\frac{f(x)}{(x^n + a)(x^m + b)} = \frac{k_{n}x^{n-1}+k_{n-1}x^{n-2}+ ... +k_{2}x + k_1}{x^n + a}+\frac{r_{m}x^{m-1}+r_{m-1}x^{m-2}+...+r_{2}x + r_1}{x^m + b}$$
Where ##f(x)## can be any arbitrary polynomial function, we can solve for the constants ##k_n,k_{n-1},...,k_2, k_1## and ##r_m, r_{m-1},...r_2,r_1##by setting different continent values of ##x##.
He didn't give any reasoning to the part in bold, I can see that this method works and I have bashed many integrals using the partial fraction decomposition method but I still don't understand the logic behind it.