Matrix elements of position operator in infinite well basis

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the eigenfunctions of a particle in an infinite potential well and expressing the position operator in the basis of these eigenfunctions. Participants are exploring the mathematical representation of the position operator in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the matrix elements of the position operator using integrals involving eigenfunctions. Some participants question the notation used for the eigenfunctions and the handling of the delta function in the integral.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing the correctness of the integral representation and the notation for eigenfunctions. Some guidance has been offered regarding the notation and the interpretation of the integral, with acknowledgment that the original poster's approach is on the right track.

Contextual Notes

There is a note about the potential confusion arising from the notation used for eigenfunctions, as well as a reference to external resources for clarification on the topic.

carllacan
Messages
272
Reaction score
3

Homework Statement


Find the eigenfunctions of a particle in a infinite well and express the position operator in the basis of said functions.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



Tell me if I'm right so far (the |E> are the eigenkets)
X_{ij}= \langle E_i \vert \hat{X} \vert E_j \rangle = \int dx \int dx' \langle E_i \vert x \rangle \langle x \vert \hat{X} \vert x'\rangle \langle x'\vert E_j \rangle
\int dx \int dx' \Psi_i^*(x) x\delta_{x, x'} \Psi_j(x') = \int dx \Psi_i^*(x) x \Psi_j(x)
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Modify your notation for the eigenfunctions.
Using E to denote an eigenfunction is very confusing.
You can read on wikipedia about the eigenfunctions for an infinite well:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Particle_in_a_box
If I guessed your notations correctly, you are starting in the right direction.
 
The eigenvalues Ei are only used to denote their respective eigenkets, the wavefunctions are denoted by the index of the eigenvalue. I think I've seen this in many books.

The last integral is correct then? I was not sure how to handle the delta.
 
Yes it is correct.
By definition, I would say.
It looks more like a change of notation rather than any derivation of something!

X_{ij}= \langle \Psi_i \vert \hat{X} \vert \Psi_j \rangle

Which is indeed the integral you have written!

The state is independent of its representation.
Therefore I see no need to distinguish between

\langle \Psi_i \vert \hat{X} \vert \Psi_j \rangle

and

\langle E_i \vert \hat{X} \vert E_j \rangle
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
Yes, you are right, but I first needed to state it in terms of the wavefunctions, and I wasn't quite sure if I had done it right.

Thanks.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
16
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
4K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K