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If F is a probability distribution function and /phi is its integrable characteristic function. If the mean of F exists, why can we say that there exists u>0 st int[abs(1- /phi(t))/t] < infinity, where the integral is over the set of all t st abs(t)<u ?

(abs = absolute value)

I just. Can`t. See. It.

Thanks in advance for your help.

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# Mean of a Distribution Question

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