I Meaning of the invariants built from the angular momentum tensor

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The discussion focuses on the invariants derived from the angular momentum tensor in special relativity, particularly the scalars ##\vec L \cdot \vec N## and ##L^2 - N^2##. The first scalar is zero, while the second, which is not Poincaré-invariant, simplifies to ##m^2 r^2## in the center-of-momentum frame. The vector ##\vec N## is associated with the relativistic center-of-energy, and conservation laws dictate that the quantities ##E, \vec{p}, \vec{L}, \vec{N}## remain constant for isolated systems. However, the physical significance of ##\vec N## is debated, as it can be made to vanish by choosing an appropriate coordinate origin. The discussion concludes by emphasizing the need for the Pauli-Lubanski spin vector to accurately describe the internal angular momentum, as it is invariant under translations.
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What is the significance of the Lorentz-invariants you can construct from the angular momentum rank-2 tensor?
In special relativity, there's an antisymmetric rank-2 angular-momentum tensor that's "structurally" very similar to the electromagnetic field tensor. Much like you can extract from the latter (and its Hodge dual) a pair of invariants through double contractions (##\vec E \cdot \vec B## and ##E^2 - B^2##), you can extract from the former a pair of Lorentz invariants: ##\vec L \cdot \vec N## and ##L^2 - N^2##, where ##\vec L = \vec r \times \vec p## is the angular-momentum pseudovector and ##\vec N = E \vec r - t \vec p## (of course, ##\vec r## is three-position, ##\vec p## is three-momentum, ##E## is energy, and ##t## is coordinate time). The first scalar (##\vec L \cdot \vec N##) is trivially zero (which I suppose makes it Poincaré-invariant, too). The second (##L^2 - N^2##) is not, but reduces to ##m^2 r^2## in the center-of-momentum frame.

I'm wondering whether the Lorentz-invariance of ##L^2 - N^2## has a straightforward physical interpretation. In the center-of-momentum frame, I guess ##L^2 - N^2## means ##\sum_{i = 1}^n m_i \vec r_i \cdot m_i \vec r_i## (for a system of ##n## particles), which is (maybe) notable because it's related to the numerator of the Newtonian center-of-mass, ##\frac{\sum_{i = 1}^n m_i \vec r_i}{\sum_{i = 1}^n m_i}##. That's all I've got. Am I missing something obvious here? Does the Lorentz-invariance of ##L^2 - N^2## have a simple physical meaning?
 
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SiennaTheGr8 said:
That's all I've got. Am I missing something obvious here? Does the Lorentz-invariance of ##L^2 - N^2## have a simple physical meaning?
You correctly infer that ##\vec{N}## relates to the so-called relativistic "center-of-energy" or "center-of-inertia" (see e.g. Landau & Lifshitz, Classical Theory of Fields, pg. 41). Note that for an isolated system, conservation requires that the ten quantities ##E,\vec{p},\vec{L},\vec{N}## all be constant. So in particular, ##\text{const.}=\frac{\vec{N}}{E}=\vec{r}-\left(\frac{\vec{p}}{E}\right)t\equiv\vec{r}_{0}-\vec{v}_{0}t##, where ##\vec{r}_{0},\vec{v}_{0}## are the position and velocity of the system's center-of-energy. But for this reason, Weinberg (Gravitation and Cosmology, pg. 47) says about ##\vec{N}##: "These components have no clear physical significance, and in fact can be made to vanish if we fix the origin of coordinates to coincide with the "center of energy" at ##t=0##, that is, if at ##t=0## the moment ##\int x^{i}T^{00}d^{3}x## vanishes." He then points out that this is due to the fact that the angular-momentum tensor ##J^{\alpha\beta}## is not invariant under 4-translations since orbital angular momentum is always defined with respect to some center of rotation. Instead, to characterize the "internal" portion of the angular momentum, one must use the so-called Pauli-Lubanski spin vector ##S_{\alpha}\equiv\frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_{\alpha\beta\gamma\delta}\,\frac{J^{\beta\gamma}P^{\delta}}{\sqrt{P^{2}}}##, which is sensibly invariant under translations and reduces in the rest frame to the ordinary 3D total angular momentum.
 
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Moderator's note: Spin-off from another thread due to topic change. In the second link referenced, there is a claim about a physical interpretation of frame field. Consider a family of observers whose worldlines fill a region of spacetime. Each of them carries a clock and a set of mutually orthogonal rulers. Each observer points in the (timelike) direction defined by its worldline's tangent at any given event along it. What about the rulers each of them carries ? My interpretation: each...

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