- #1
jem05
- 56
- 0
hello,
i have a clarification question:
if i have a metrizable space, can any open set be written as a countable union of basis elts?
if not, can it have some properties that make this assertion true, like being T1 or sth like that.
thanks a lot.
just to clarify why i think so, i have a space X with a topology T on it.
Let's say this topology is metrizable, with a metric d. Then, the open sets O(x,r) = {y in X , d(x,y)<r} form a basis for this topology. so any elt in this topology, t in T can be written as a countable union of such O's.
I just want to know if this is works.
thx.
i have a clarification question:
if i have a metrizable space, can any open set be written as a countable union of basis elts?
if not, can it have some properties that make this assertion true, like being T1 or sth like that.
thanks a lot.
just to clarify why i think so, i have a space X with a topology T on it.
Let's say this topology is metrizable, with a metric d. Then, the open sets O(x,r) = {y in X , d(x,y)<r} form a basis for this topology. so any elt in this topology, t in T can be written as a countable union of such O's.
I just want to know if this is works.
thx.
Last edited: