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My question is on coupling the photons to our Dirac field for electrons, we have the Dirac equation:

[tex](i\not{\partial -m })\psi=0[/tex]

By Lorentz invariance we can change our space-time measure by:

[tex]\partial ^\mu \rightarrow \partial ^\mu+ieA^\mu\equiv D^\mu[/tex]

Though I cannot see why Lorentz invariance implies that this change is invariant?

Sorry if I haven't explained my issue well, any help appreciated!

SK

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# Minimal Subsitution from Lorentz Invariance

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