What are the criteria for proving equivalence of Cauchy sequences?

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    Cauchy Equivalence
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To prove that a modified Cauchy sequence remains equivalent, it's essential to understand that two Cauchy sequences are equivalent if the sequence of their differences converges to zero. The modification of a finite number of terms does not affect this property, as the sequences will still get arbitrarily close to each other. While convergence to the same limit is a related concept, it is not the sole criterion for equivalence. The discussion emphasizes the need for clarity on definitions and representation of sequences to facilitate understanding of equivalence in this context. Ultimately, grasping these concepts is crucial for constructing the reals from the rationals using Cauchy sequences.
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Question:

Prove that if a Cauchy sequence x_1, x_2,... of rationals is modified by changing a finite number of terms, the result is an equivalent Cauchy sequence.

All the math classes I have taken previously were computational, and my textbook contains almost no definitions.

So, I know that the properties of reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity must be present to have an equivalence. However, I don't know how to show that Cauchy sequences are equivalent. I'm guessing that if they converge to the same limit, then they are equivalent, but that's just my guess. The book remains mute on this and many points.

Once I know the criteria for equivalence (whatever that may be), my next problem is that I don't have a clue how to start this or any proof. I think I need to have a way to represent the sequences.
Lets call them: A, B (modified A), and C (modified B). I think I need three objects to show transitivity.
Now here's the sticky part; I don't know how to represent A,B, or C. My brain has not yet made the jump into abstraction. :blushing:

Any suggestions on a way to write A,B, and C would be greatly appreciated!
 
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You can't do it without knowing what "equivalence" means in this particular case!

I suspect that two sequences are equivalent if they converge to the same limit, but you really should check your definitions.
 
Notation suggestion- use x_1,x_2,\ldots as your first sequence, x_1,x_2,\ldots as your modified sequence.

Two Cauchy sequences are equivalent if the sequence of their differences, x_1-y_1,x_2-y_2,\ldots converges to zero. They are eventually getting "close" to one another. This isn't quite the same as asking the two sequences to have the same limit point, but they are trying to converge to the same thing (the rationals are not complete, so they may not converge at all within the rationals).

This should be in your book though, and I'm making an assumption on the context (it looks like you're heading towards constructing the reals from the rationals via Cauchy sequences.
 
shmoe said:
Two Cauchy sequences are equivalent if the sequence of their differences, x_1-y_1,x_2-y_2,\ldots converges to zero.

Just a note to *melinda*: That would also address https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=88525 .
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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