Multiplication of Taylor and Laurent series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the multiplication of Taylor and Laurent series, specifically focusing on finding the coefficient of the term that multiplies \( \frac{1}{p} \) in the resulting series. The original poster presents two series and seeks to understand how to derive the coefficient function of \( t \) from their product.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the process of multiplying two series and extracting specific coefficients. Questions arise regarding the dependency of the result on the variable \( p \) and the clarity of the problem statement. There is also exploration of whether there are simpler methods to derive the coefficient without extensive calculations.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants attempting to clarify the problem statement and explore different methods to find the desired coefficient. Some guidance has been offered regarding the approach to take, but there is no explicit consensus on the best method yet.

Contextual Notes

There are multiple variables involved, including \( k, n, p, t \), and participants are navigating the implications of these variables on the series multiplication. The original poster has expressed a desire to avoid detailed term-by-term multiplication, indicating a preference for a more direct approach to finding the coefficient.

LagrangeEuler
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Homework Statement
Find coefficient which multiply ##\frac{1}{p}## in product of series. Coefficient is function of ##t##.
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\sum^{\infty}_{n=0}\frac{(-1)^n}{n+1}(\frac{1}{p^2})^{n+1}\,\sum^{\infty}_{k=0}\frac{p^kt^k}{k!}[/tex]
Namely product of two series will be new series that will contain the sum of terms of ##p^l## where ##l## are integers. I want to find only the term ##f(t)\frac{1}{p}## in the product.
Relevant Equations
I think that the sum of terms that multiply ##1/p## in product of two series should be ##\frac{1-\cos t}{t}##.
First series
\frac{1}{2}\sum^{\infty}_{n=0}\frac{(-1)^n}{n+1}(\frac{1}{p^2})^{n+1}= \frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{p^2}-\frac{1}{2p^4}+\frac{1}{3p^6}-\frac{1}{4p^8}+...)
whereas second one is
\sum^{\infty}_{k=0}\frac{p^kt^k}{k!}=1+pt+\frac{p^2t^2}{2!}+\frac{p^3t^3}{3!}+\frac{p^4t^4}{4!}+\frac{p^5t^5}{5!}+....
I multiply two series and I want to get coefficient that multiply ##1/p## in the series that I get as a product. I will get this type of term if I multiply ##\frac{1}{p^2}## with ##p##, ##\frac{1}{p^4}## with ##p^3##... And I need to sum all these terms.
I want to see what is coefficient that multiplies ##\frac{1}{p}## in the expansion of product of two series. That coefficient is function of ##t##.
First term I get by multiplying ##\frac{1}{2p^2}## and ##pt## and it is ##\frac{t}{2}##.
Second term I get by multiplying ##-\frac{1}{4p^4}## and ##\frac{p^3t^3}{3!}## and it is ##-\frac{t^3}{4!}##
Third term will be ##\frac{t^5}{6!}##...
I think that the sum should be ##\frac{1-\cos t}{t}##. Is there some easy way to get it without writing down all the sums?
 
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Please render the complete problem statement. I now see four variables ( ##k, n, p, t ## ) and there are two summation indices ( ##n, k ## ). How can the result not depend on ##p## ?

And what do you mean with
LagrangeEuler said:
I want to see what stands in front of ##1/p##

And (hint :wink: ): do you know the series for ##e^x## ?

##\ ##
 
I write down two series. Yes, I know. But I shouldn't go back. If I multiply two series and then asked
what is a coefficient that multiplies ##1/p## in the product of two series?
It is ##f(t)\frac{1}{p}## and ##f(t)=\frac{1-\cos t}{t}##. But I have problem to derive ##f(t)## from series multiplication. I rewrite problem statement a bit. I hope that now is more clear. ##n,k## are just sumational dummy indices.
 
LagrangeEuler said:
I hope that now is more clear.
Not to me.
BvU said:
Please render the complete problem statement.
As it was given to you. Verbatim

##\ ##
 
BvU said:
Not to me.

As it was given to you. Verbatim
 
BvU said:
Please render the complete problem statement. I now see four variables ( ##k, n, p, t ## ) and there are two summation indices ( ##n, k ## ). How can the result not depend on ##p## ?
The problem is only asking for the coefficient of the 1/p term of the Laurent series, which is not a function of p.
LagrangeEuler said:
I think that the sum should be ##\frac{1-\cos t}{t}##. Is there some easy way to get it without writing down all the sums?
Not in general. I have not checked the details of your work, but I think it is the approach they had in mind.
 
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I tried to edit it once again. I multiply two series. I will get some third series which will be
f(t)\frac{1}{p}+...
I gave in the statement both series that I multiply in order to get the third one. And I need to find ##f(t)##.
 
Why don' t you pursuit your way to get the coefficient of 1/p,
\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{t^{2n-1}}{(2n-1)!}\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}
and take a look at it?

You see terms n=1 and n=2 are the same as you have got.
 
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Ah, I finally understand the problem statement :doh:
Sorry it took me a while, and I second @anuttarasammyak . Whether that qualifies as 'some easy way to get it without writing down all the sums' is subjective :wink:

:smile:

##\ ##
 
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  • #10
I can do this in that fashion, however, I would like to try to get this sum immediately without using induction. Can you show me how to obtain this by playing with the sums?
 
  • #11
From the formula of #8
\frac{1}{t}[1-\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nt^{2n}}{(2n)!}]
 
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  • #12
I can not get this sum from the product. Can you please show me how to get this? Without multiplying term by term.
 
  • #13
Just do what you described in your original post. For each value of ##n##, pick off just the term in the second series so the product is a ##p^{-1}## term. The first series contributes ##p^{-(2n+2)}##, so you want the term where ##k=2n+1## from the second series.
 

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