Multivariate limit: (xy^2)/(x + y^2)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the multivariate limit of the expression (xy^2)/(x + y^2) as (x,y) approaches (0,0). Participants explore various approaches to determine if the limit exists and what its value might be.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to evaluate the limit using different paths, including linear and polynomial approaches, and considers the implications of approaching the limit along the axes. They also explore polar coordinates and question the nature of indeterminate forms.
  • Some participants question the existence of the limit based on specific paths, such as x = -y², and discuss the implications of undefined points in the context of limits.
  • Others suggest reconsidering the definitions of neighborhoods and accumulation points in relation to the limit's existence.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights and clarifications regarding the limit's behavior. There is recognition that the limit may not exist based on certain paths, and some guidance is offered on the definitions relevant to limits in multivariable calculus.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of considering deleted neighborhoods and accumulation points when discussing the existence of limits, as well as the distinction between points on a curve and points near it.

demonelite123
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lim (xy^2)/(x + y^2)
(x,y)->(0,0)

i just came up with this limit to test my understanding. so approaching from y = mx, y = mx^2, and y = mx^3 all seemed to point out that the limit is 0. i tried approaching from the x and y axes and i got for approaching along the x axis: lim (as (x,y)->(0,0)) of 0 / x. would this be another instance of the limit being 0 or would it be an indeterminate form? because x is approaching 0 but it does not equal 0 so x would get smaller and smaller yet still be a finite number greater than 0 so the quotient would be 0. is this reasoning correct?

i have also tried polar coordinates and came up with: lim (as r->0) of (r^2 cos(x)sin(x))/(cos(x) + r sin^2 (x)). so when cos and sin are nonzero the limit becomes 0, no problem. when x = 0 the limit is also 0. but when x = pi/2 then i get lim (as r->0) of 0 / r which brings me back to the question i asked earlier about 0 / x. is this 0 or would it be indeterminate?

i know i can't say for sure that this limit exists but I'm starting to suspect it does if the 0 / x and 0 / r quotients indeed are also 0 when x and r approach 0 respectively.
 
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The limit as x→0 of 0/x is indeed zero, just as you reasoned. However, the multivariate limit you're investigating doesn't exist -- to see why, consider the path x = -y².
 
Citan Uzuki said:
The limit as x→0 of 0/x is indeed zero, just as you reasoned. However, the multivariate limit you're investigating doesn't exist -- to see why, consider the path x = -y².

oh so it would become lim (as (x,y)->(0,0)) of -y^4 / 0 which is undefined for all values of y that approach 0. then i can say the limit does not exist because there is no neighborhood of (0,0) such that the function is defined and the difference between the limit and the function value is less than a given epsilon. would this be correct?
 
Close, but there are a few points to make:

1: You should say deleted neighborhood instead of neighborhood -- since a function not defined at (0, 0) can of course have a limit there.

2: Saying that there is some ε such that there is no deleted neighborhood for which the function is defined and |f(x) - L|<ε shows that the limit is not L. You still have to show that there is no such neighborhood regardless of what L is to prove that there is not limit. Granted, that's no harder than doing it for some specific L if your textbook requires that the function be defined in a deleted neighborhood of a point for the limit to be defined, however...

3: In general, one only requires that the point be an accumulation point of the domain for the limit to exist. In that case, the points actually ON the curve x = -y^2 wouldn't affect the existence of the limit at all, since they are not part of the domain. What would affect the existence of the limit is the points NEAR the curve, say, x = -y^2 + y^4.
 
Citan Uzuki said:
Close, but there are a few points to make:

1: You should say deleted neighborhood instead of neighborhood -- since a function not defined at (0, 0) can of course have a limit there.

2: Saying that there is some ε such that there is no deleted neighborhood for which the function is defined and |f(x) - L|<ε shows that the limit is not L. You still have to show that there is no such neighborhood regardless of what L is to prove that there is not limit. Granted, that's no harder than doing it for some specific L if your textbook requires that the function be defined in a deleted neighborhood of a point for the limit to be defined, however...

3: In general, one only requires that the point be an accumulation point of the domain for the limit to exist. In that case, the points actually ON the curve x = -y^2 wouldn't affect the existence of the limit at all, since they are not part of the domain. What would affect the existence of the limit is the points NEAR the curve, say, x = -y^2 + y^4.

oh ok. i checked the limit when x = -y^2 + y^4 and it becomes -1 which is different from 0 so there indeed is no limit. i remember on another post i saw the following limit:
lim (as (x,y)->(0,0)) of (x+y) / (sin(x) + sin(y)). when y = -x the function becomes 0/0 and is undefined along that line. however the points on the line y=-x should not affect the existence of the limit because they are not a part of the function's domain, only points arbitrarily close to that line would correct?
 
Yes, that is correct.
 

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