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I was talking to my professor and she said that $(ln n)^a < n$ for all values of $a$. Is this true or was I misunderstanding?
The inequality $(\ln n)^a < n$ is false for all values of $a$ when considering the limit as $n$ approaches infinity. A counterexample is provided with $\ln^3(e^2)$, where $e^2 \approx 7.4$. The discussion emphasizes that the misunderstanding arises from not specifying the context of $n$ approaching infinity, which is crucial for evaluating the inequality correctly. This topic is fundamentally linked to the concept of limits in calculus.
PREREQUISITESStudents studying calculus, educators teaching logarithmic functions, and anyone interested in understanding mathematical inequalities and limits.
greg1313 said:It's false. Consider $\ln^3\left(e^2\right)$ and note that $e^2\approx7.4$.