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I was talking to my professor and she said that $(ln n)^a < n$ for all values of $a$. Is this true or was I misunderstanding?
The discussion centers around the inequality $(\ln n)^a < n$ and whether it holds true for all values of $a$, particularly in the context of $n$ approaching infinity. Participants explore the implications of this inequality and its validity.
Participants do not reach a consensus on the validity of the inequality. There are competing views regarding its truth, particularly in the context of limits as $n$ approaches infinity.
The discussion highlights the importance of context, specifically the behavior of the inequality as $n$ approaches infinity, which some participants believe was overlooked in earlier statements.
greg1313 said:It's false. Consider $\ln^3\left(e^2\right)$ and note that $e^2\approx7.4$.