Need a hint for intro real analysis problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof in real analysis concerning the cardinality of infinite sets. The original poster is attempting to prove that if the cardinality of set X is infinite, then the cardinality of the natural numbers N is less than or equal to that of X.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster outlines an approach involving the construction of an injective function from N to X, using the properties of infinite sets. Some participants suggest using induction to define this function, while others question the clarity of the inductive reasoning and the execution of the proof.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's reasoning, providing feedback on the inductive step and suggesting refinements to the argument. There is an ongoing exploration of how to effectively apply induction in this context, with some guidance offered on phrasing the inductive step more clearly.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses uncertainty about their understanding of induction, indicating a potential gap in their foundational knowledge of the method, which may affect their ability to complete the proof.

andrassy
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Im just starting real analysis and trying to get my mind to start thinking the right way to do these kind of proofs. Any hints would be appreciated.

Homework Statement

Prove: If |X| is infinite, then |N| <= |X| where N = natural numbers

The Attempt at a Solution

I figure you can start by saying Let |X| be infinite. Then there does not exist any bijective function f: X -> {1,..,n} for any n. And I understand that |N| <= |X| means that there exists an injective function that maps N to X and that N is infinite. But I am having trouble bridging these. Any advice?
 
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Use induction to define the injection f. X is nonempty so pick an x1 and define f(1)=x1. If X didn't have any more elements, then f would be a bijection. So you can find an x2!=x1 and define f(2)=x2. Etc, etc.
 
I'm not quite sure I underhand how to execute the proof using this method. I also have not really learned how to do induction well yet, Here is what I have:

Suppose |X| is infinite. We construct a function f: N -> X. Because |X| is infinite, X is not empty.
Using induction: For n=1, f(1)=x1 is a unique element in X.
Inductive assumption: There is a unique element in X for every element in N: Suppose, for n=k, f(k)=xk. Suppose this were the last element in X, then the function f would be a bijection. But we know that since N is infinite, there does not exist any bijection f: N -> {1,...,n} for any n. Thus, there is a contradiction, so xk cannot be the last element. Then, when n = k+1, f(k+1)=xk+1 is a unique element in X. The inductive assumption is therefore true. Since there exists a unique element in X for every element in N, f: N->X is injective. Therefore, by definition, |N| <= |X|.

Does this look okay?
 
andrassy said:
I'm not quite sure I underhand how to execute the proof using this method. I also have not really learned how to do induction well yet, Here is what I have:

Suppose |X| is infinite. We construct a function f: N -> X. Because |X| is infinite, X is not empty.
Using induction: For n=1, f(1)=x1 is a unique element in X.
Inductive assumption: There is a unique element in X for every element in N: Suppose, for n=k, f(k)=xk. Suppose this were the last element in X, then the function f would be a bijection. But we know that since N is infinite, there does not exist any bijection f: N -> {1,...,n} for any n. Thus, there is a contradiction, so xk cannot be the last element. Then, when n = k+1, f(k+1)=xk+1 is a unique element in X. The inductive assumption is therefore true. Since there exists a unique element in X for every element in N, f: N->X is injective. Therefore, by definition, |N| <= |X|.

Does this look okay?

Sort of. How about phrasing the inductive step more like this? If {x1,...,xk} is sequence of k distinct elements in X, then there exists an x_k+1 in X which is not equal to any of the x1,...,xk. (The argument is as you gave it). So there exists a sequence of k+1 distinct elements in X. Induction then shows there is an infinite sequence of distinct elements in X, {x1,x2,...}.
 

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