How do I compute the integral of x/(e^x) with limits 0 and infinity?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around computing the improper integral of the function x/(e^x) with limits from 0 to infinity. Participants explore methods for evaluating the integral and discuss convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Homework-related
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses uncertainty about how to start computing the integral of x/(e^x) from 0 to infinity.
  • Another participant proposes a solution, suggesting that the integral evaluates to 1 after applying limits, but does not provide a detailed justification for their steps.
  • A third participant reformulates the integral as ∫_{0}^{∞} xe^{-x}dx and applies integration by parts, arriving at a limit that also suggests the integral converges to 1.
  • A fourth participant mentions a related integral formula, stating that ∫_0^∞ x^n e^{-x}dx equals n! for integer n, and notes the broader applicability of this result.
  • A fifth participant expresses a general appreciation for mathematics without addressing the integral directly.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There appears to be a general agreement among participants that the integral converges to 1, although the reasoning and methods used to arrive at this conclusion vary. However, the initial uncertainty expressed by the first participant indicates that not all aspects of the problem are fully resolved.

Contextual Notes

Some participants' steps involve assumptions about the behavior of the function at the limits, and the discussion does not clarify all mathematical steps or conditions under which the integral converges.

steelphoenix
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Im doing a chapter on Improper integrals, and one of my problems is i need to compute an integral if it converges. I really don't know where to start with this one. Anyone point me in the right direction?

integral of x/(e^x) where the lower limit is 0 and the upper is infinite

really any help would be appreciated, I got a bit of a cold and seem to be forgetting every bit of math
 
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ook wait, i think i figured it out

i stat off by calculating the integral, which turns out to be

-( (x+1)/e^x )

then you end up getting 1 after you plug in the limits, because when its infinity it becomes zero and when 0 it becomes -1, so when you subtract negetive 1 it becomes 1, and 1 is the answer
 
You have x/(e^x) = xe^{-x}

So \int_{0}^{\infty}xe^{-x}dx

Integration by parts gives {\lim }\limits_{x \to \infty } -e^{-x}(x+1) + 1

{\lim }\limits_{x \to \infty } \frac{-(x+1) }{e^x} + 1

Applying l'Hôpital's rule gives {\lim }\limits_{x \to \infty } \frac{-1 }{e^x} + 1 = 0 + 1
= 1
 
As an aside, in case anyone cares:

\int_0^\infty x^n e^{-x}\,dx = n!

For integer n. However, the integral form is also well-defined for real, and even complex n, except at the negative integers where it diverges. Look up "gamma function" for more details.
 
I somehow recognized it before I read the rest of your post. Math is fascinating
 

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