Looking for the help with a conceptual framework of the Bell’s theorem and would appreciate any assistance. The Bell theorem has been verified in numerous experiments (lets assume that those experiments are free form loopholes). As I understand the essence of those proves are based on comparing correlations predicted by QM with the correlations derived from the hidden variables theories and after ruling them out, the QM (non-locality) is the only option. If the above makes a sense, should these hidden variables theories have some prerequisites to be used in the Bell theorem? Should they be in compliance with QM equations and yield the same experimental results as predicted by QM. If they don’t complies with QM, they are not real hidden variables (QM) theories but surrogatess only. If these theories indeed comply with QM prerequisites , why their correlations aren’t calculated based on the QM prediction, but the ‘classical’ approach is used instead?