Non-strange non-baryonic states are eigenstates of G-parity

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of non-strange non-baryonic states as eigenstates of G-parity, particularly focusing on the implications for composite states like K^{+}K^{-}. Participants explore the conditions under which these states can be considered eigenstates and the relationship with isospin multiplets.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested, Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that all non-strange non-baryonic states are eigenstates of G-parity and that all members of an isospin multiplet share the same eigenvalue, seeking proof for these statements.
  • Another participant emphasizes that to discuss G-parity, one must start with an eigenstate of isospin, noting that K^{+}K^{-} and K^{0}\bar{K}^{0} are superpositions of I=0 and I=1.
  • A later reply questions whether K^{+}K^{-} and K^{0}\bar{K}^{0} can be considered eigenstates of G-parity, referencing the example of \pi^{+}\pi^{-} which, despite being a superposition, has a defined G-parity eigenvalue.
  • One participant corrects their earlier comment and suggests a paper that may clarify the G-parity of K K-bar systems, specifically pointing to a section that addresses this issue.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether K^{+}K^{-} and K^{0}\bar{K}^{0} can be classified as eigenstates of G-parity, indicating that multiple competing views remain unresolved.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the dependence of G-parity classification on the isospin state, with some participants noting the complexity of superpositions involved in the discussed states.

karlzr
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It is said that all non-strange non-baryonic states are eigenstates of G-parity. And all members of an isospin multiplet have the same eigenvalue. Can anyone give me a proof to these two statements, or show me where I can find one?
In addition, the composite state consisting of K^{+}K^{-} should be an eigenstate of G, according to the first statement. But after applying G=e^{-i\pi I_y}C to K^+=u\bar{s}, we obtain \bar{K^0}=\bar{d}s. Similarly, K^- changes into K^0(here e^{-i\pi I_y}=e^{-i \pi \sigma_y/2} for SU(2)) . Then how can we say K^{+}K^{-} is an eigenstate of G?
 
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In order to talk about G-parity you have to start with an eigenstate of isospin. Whereas both K+K- and K0K0-bar are superpositions of I=0 and I=1.
 
Bill_K said:
In order to talk about G-parity you have to start with an eigenstate of isospin. Whereas both K+K- and K0K0-bar are superpositions of I=0 and I=1.

Do you mean K^+ K^- and K^0\bar{K}^0 are not eigenstates of G-parity? because I don't think so. Consider \pi^+ \pi^-, it can also be superposition of I=0,1,2, but the G-parity is (-1)^2=1, since \pi are eigenstate of G with eigenvalue -1.
Actually this is about a problem from Bettini's elementary particle physics, 3.20 on page 107. Here is the link:
http://books.google.com/books?id=HNcQ_EiuTxcC&printsec=frontcover#v=onepage&q&f=false
 
Sorry, my comment was incorrect. This paper might be of help to you, especially on p 9 where they work out the G-parity of K K-bar systems.
 

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