Non-strange non-baryonic states are eigenstates of G-parity

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter karlzr
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Eigenstates States
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of non-strange non-baryonic states as eigenstates of G-parity, particularly focusing on the implications for composite states like K^{+}K^{-}. Participants explore the conditions under which these states can be considered eigenstates and the relationship with isospin multiplets.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested, Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that all non-strange non-baryonic states are eigenstates of G-parity and that all members of an isospin multiplet share the same eigenvalue, seeking proof for these statements.
  • Another participant emphasizes that to discuss G-parity, one must start with an eigenstate of isospin, noting that K^{+}K^{-} and K^{0}\bar{K}^{0} are superpositions of I=0 and I=1.
  • A later reply questions whether K^{+}K^{-} and K^{0}\bar{K}^{0} can be considered eigenstates of G-parity, referencing the example of \pi^{+}\pi^{-} which, despite being a superposition, has a defined G-parity eigenvalue.
  • One participant corrects their earlier comment and suggests a paper that may clarify the G-parity of K K-bar systems, specifically pointing to a section that addresses this issue.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether K^{+}K^{-} and K^{0}\bar{K}^{0} can be classified as eigenstates of G-parity, indicating that multiple competing views remain unresolved.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the dependence of G-parity classification on the isospin state, with some participants noting the complexity of superpositions involved in the discussed states.

karlzr
Messages
129
Reaction score
2
It is said that all non-strange non-baryonic states are eigenstates of G-parity. And all members of an isospin multiplet have the same eigenvalue. Can anyone give me a proof to these two statements, or show me where I can find one?
In addition, the composite state consisting of [itex]K^{+}K^{-}[/itex] should be an eigenstate of G, according to the first statement. But after applying [itex]G=e^{-i\pi I_y}C[/itex] to [itex]K^+=u\bar{s}[/itex], we obtain [itex]\bar{K^0}=\bar{d}s[/itex]. Similarly, [itex]K^-[/itex] changes into [itex]K^0[/itex](here [itex]e^{-i\pi I_y}=e^{-i \pi \sigma_y/2}[/itex] for SU(2)) . Then how can we say [itex]K^{+}K^{-}[/itex] is an eigenstate of G?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
In order to talk about G-parity you have to start with an eigenstate of isospin. Whereas both K+K- and K0K0-bar are superpositions of I=0 and I=1.
 
Bill_K said:
In order to talk about G-parity you have to start with an eigenstate of isospin. Whereas both K+K- and K0K0-bar are superpositions of I=0 and I=1.

Do you mean [itex]K^+ K^-[/itex] and [itex]K^0\bar{K}^0[/itex] are not eigenstates of G-parity? because I don't think so. Consider [itex]\pi^+ \pi^-[/itex], it can also be superposition of I=0,1,2, but the G-parity is [itex](-1)^2=1[/itex], since [itex]\pi[/itex] are eigenstate of G with eigenvalue -1.
Actually this is about a problem from Bettini's elementary particle physics, 3.20 on page 107. Here is the link:
http://books.google.com/books?id=HNcQ_EiuTxcC&printsec=frontcover#v=onepage&q&f=false
 
Sorry, my comment was incorrect. This paper might be of help to you, especially on p 9 where they work out the G-parity of K K-bar systems.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
4K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K