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merrypark3
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[itex]p\bar{p}[/itex] pair is a CP eigenstate?
As [itex]p[/itex] and [itex]\bar{p}[/itex] are fermions (the pair is assumed to be at S-state), the pair seems to be C's eigenstate with eigenvalue of -1.
As they have opposite intrinsic parity, the pair state seems to be P's eigenstate with eigenvalue -1. Then isn't it CP eigenstate with eigenvalue of 1?
But why the [itex]p[/itex][itex]\bar{p}[/itex] pair cannot produce [itex]K_S[/itex] or [itex]K_L[/itex] but only [itex]\bar{K}^0[/itex]?
As [itex]p[/itex] and [itex]\bar{p}[/itex] are fermions (the pair is assumed to be at S-state), the pair seems to be C's eigenstate with eigenvalue of -1.
As they have opposite intrinsic parity, the pair state seems to be P's eigenstate with eigenvalue -1. Then isn't it CP eigenstate with eigenvalue of 1?
But why the [itex]p[/itex][itex]\bar{p}[/itex] pair cannot produce [itex]K_S[/itex] or [itex]K_L[/itex] but only [itex]\bar{K}^0[/itex]?
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