In attempting to work through some basics of QM –(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I have a question regarding a statement or a conclusion regarding “Normalizing the Wave Function”

After “turning the crank” authors show:

[tex]

\frac {d}{dt} \int_ {-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2 dx= \frac{ih}{2m}(\psi*\frac{d\psi}{dx} - \frac{\psi*}{dx}\psi )

[/tex]

I can mathematically get to this –

But I don’t “see” statements that follow this result.

Griffiths states,“But [tex] \psi [/tex] must go to zero as x goes to infinity."

A web search found this statement:

[tex]

\frac {d}{dt} \int_ {-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2 dx= \frac{ih}{2m}(\psi*\frac{d\psi}{dx} - \frac{\psi*}{dx}\psi )

[/tex]

“The above equation is satisfied provided [tex] |\psi|[/tex] goes to zero as [tex] |x| [/tex] goes to zero."

Can you provide clarifying information on these statements / conclusions.

I don’t understand the conclusion being drawn – it’s not intuitive to me where I could make the statement the authors make.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Normalization of Wave-Function

Loading...

Similar Threads - Normalization Wave Function | Date |
---|---|

I About normalization of periodic wave function | Sep 29, 2016 |

Normalizing Wave Functions | Nov 17, 2014 |

The normalization constant in wave function and another questions | Apr 27, 2014 |

Why do we need complex numbers while normalizing the wave function? | Jul 4, 2013 |

Normalizing a wave function - how the integration is done? | Feb 18, 2013 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**