In attempting to work through some basics of QM –(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I have a question regarding a statement or a conclusion regarding “Normalizing the Wave Function”

After “turning the crank” authors show:

[tex]

\frac {d}{dt} \int_ {-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2 dx= \frac{ih}{2m}(\psi*\frac{d\psi}{dx} - \frac{\psi*}{dx}\psi )

[/tex]

I can mathematically get to this –

But I don’t “see” statements that follow this result.

Griffiths states,“But [tex] \psi [/tex] must go to zero as x goes to infinity."

A web search found this statement:

[tex]

\frac {d}{dt} \int_ {-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2 dx= \frac{ih}{2m}(\psi*\frac{d\psi}{dx} - \frac{\psi*}{dx}\psi )

[/tex]

“The above equation is satisfied provided [tex] |\psi|[/tex] goes to zero as [tex] |x| [/tex] goes to zero."

Can you provide clarifying information on these statements / conclusions.

I don’t understand the conclusion being drawn – it’s not intuitive to me where I could make the statement the authors make.

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# Normalization of Wave-Function

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