Normalized basis when taking inner product

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kent davidge
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Consider that a vector can be represented in two different basis. My question is do we need to normalize both basis before taking the inner product?

What motivates this question is because I found out that the inner product of a vector having components ##a,b## in the normalized polar basis of ##\mathbb{R}^2## will be ##a^2 + b^2## whereas it will be ##r^2(a^2 + b^2)## if the basis is not normalized.
 
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kent davidge said:
Consider that a vector can be represented in two different basis. My question is do we need to normalize both basis before taking the inner product?
No. The vectors in a basis don't have to be normalized (i.e., of unit length).
 
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Mark44 said:
No. The vectors in a basis don't have to be normalized (i.e., of unit length).
Hi Mark. Please consider re reading my post after I added context to my question.
 
kent davidge said:
What motivates this question is because I found out that the inner product of a vector having components ##a,b## in the normalized polar basis of ##\mathbb{R}^2## will be ##a^2 + b^2## whereas it will be ##r^2(a^2 + b^2)## if the basis is not normalized.
Here's a link to a page I found that might be helpful -- http://www.math.tamu.edu/~fulling/coalweb/polar.htm

BTW, saying "inner product of a vector" with no mention of another vector is meaningless. In this case, I think you meant the inner product of a vector with itself.
 
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Mark44 said:
BTW, saying "inner product of a vector" with no mention of another vector is meaningless. In this case, I think you meant the inner product of a vector with itself
That's what I meant
Mark44 said:
Here's a link to a page I found that might be helpful -- http://www.math.tamu.edu/~fulling/coalweb/polar.htm
They don't specify the reasons for using unit polar vectors, but the conclusion I draw from their example is that by using the unit vectors we are not affecting our numerical quantities, we merely use the vectors in order to get a direction, in this case.