Normalizing wave functions calculator issue

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the challenges faced when using TI-89 and Voyage 200 calculators to solve integrals related to normalizing wave functions. The integral in question, which is derived from the wave function ψ(x) = A * e^(-ax²), should yield a solution of (2a/π)^(1/4) when properly calculated. Users report that their calculators return another integral instead of a numerical answer, indicating a potential setting issue or misunderstanding of the calculator's capabilities.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of wave functions and normalization in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with integral calculus, specifically definite integrals
  • Experience with TI-89 and Voyage 200 calculators
  • Knowledge of exponential functions and their properties
NEXT STEPS
  • Research how to configure TI-89 and Voyage 200 calculators for integral calculations
  • Learn about the properties of wave functions in quantum mechanics
  • Explore techniques for solving definite integrals analytically
  • Investigate alternative calculators or software for solving complex integrals
USEFUL FOR

Students in physics courses, particularly those studying quantum mechanics, as well as educators and anyone seeking to effectively utilize TI-89 and Voyage 200 calculators for integral calculations.

Galgenstrick
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This is more of a calculator issue than the physics part. Below is just an example from my textbook. Our professor expects us to be able to plug an integral like this into our calculator to get the answer. although every problem I have tried like this just pops out another integral on the calculator. I am using a TI-89 and Voyage 200, both won't solve the integral. I am not sure if there is some setting I am missing to be able to do this. Can someone please try this out? Thanks!

Homework Statement



What is the value of A if if this wave function is normalized.

[tex]\psi[/tex] (x)=A*e [tex]^{-ax^2}[/tex]

Homework Equations



[tex]\int[/tex] [tex]\psi[/tex] (x) [tex]^{2}[/tex] dx = 1 from -infinity to infinity

The Attempt at a Solution



The solution is (2a/Pi)^(1/4). (this was an example problem in the textbook)
 
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I don't have much experience with the calculators you mentioned, but have you tried doubling the integral and integrating from zero to +infinity?
 

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