Number theory: simple gcd question

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The statement that if ax + by = 1, then (a, b) = 1 is confirmed to be true. The reasoning involves assuming (a, b) = c, where c > 1, leading to a contradiction since c would have to divide 1. The proof presented is valid and effectively demonstrates the relationship between the coefficients and their greatest common divisor. The discussion highlights the importance of understanding gcd properties in number theory. Overall, the proof is solid and aligns with established mathematical principles.
doubleaxel195
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Homework Statement


If ax+by=1, then (a,b)=1.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I am just wondering if this is true. Because I know it is not true if ax+by=c, then (a,b)=c.

Here is a proof I came up with:

Suppose (a,b)=c, c>1.Then c|a and c|b, but then from our assumption, this implies that c|1, a contradiction.

I'm new to writing proofs so I just want to make sure I am on the right track. Thanks.
 
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