O(2) symmetry breaking trouble

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of O(2) symmetry breaking in the context of a scalar field theory. Participants explore the implications of symmetry breaking on the vacuum expectation value and the resulting equations of motion for the fields involved. The scope includes theoretical aspects of quantum field theory and mathematical reasoning related to the Lagrangian and potential forms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether the vacuum expectation value, v, in the symmetry breaking equations is the same as the previously defined v, leading to confusion about its usage.
  • Another participant clarifies that the vacuum expectation value is defined by the equation for the minima and its value changes with the introduction of the symmetry-breaking term.
  • A participant expresses difficulty in deriving the equations of motion from the expanded fields, noting discrepancies with the book's results.
  • Further elaboration is provided on how to identify terms in the equations of motion that contribute to mass definitions, emphasizing the importance of linear terms for mass calculations.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the interpretation of the vacuum expectation value or the derivation of the equations of motion, indicating multiple competing views and unresolved questions.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved assumptions regarding the definitions and roles of the vacuum expectation value in different contexts, as well as potential missing steps in the derivation of equations of motion from the expanded fields.

jfy4
Messages
645
Reaction score
3
Hi, I'm going to quote a lot of a book so that I can get some help, brace yourselves...

First, \phi_{a} is my field with a=0,1 as internal components and my lagrangian is
<br /> L=\frac{1}{2}\partial_{\mu}\phi_a \partial^\mu \phi_a +\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2<br />
with U=\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2
now in Jan Smit's book, "Introduction to Quantum Fields on a Lattice" the page has the following:
The potential
<br /> U=\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2 <br />
has a "wine-bottle" shape, also called the "mexican-hat" shape, if \mu^2 &lt;0. It's clear that for \mu^2 &gt;0 the ground state is unique, but for \mu^2 &lt;0 the ground state is infinitely degenerate. The equation \partial U/\partial \phi^k =0 for the minima, (\mu^2 +\lambda \phi^2)=0 has the solution
<br /> \phi_{g}^a =v\delta_{a,0},\quad v^2=-\frac{\mu^2}{\lambda}<br />
or any O(2) rotation of this vector. To force the system into a definite ground state we add a symmetry-breaking term to the action
<br /> \Delta S=\int dx \epsilon \phi^0, \quad \epsilon &gt;0<br />
The constant \epsilon has the dimensions of mass cubed. The equation for the stationary points now reads
<br /> (\mu^2 +\lambda \phi^2 )\phi^a =\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
with the symmetry breaking (the above) the ground state has \phi_{g}^a pointing in the a=0 direction,
<br /> \phi_{g}^a=v\delta_{a,0},\quad (\mu^2+\lambda v^2)v=\epsilon<br />
My first question: Is that v in the symmetry breaking part the same v we defined above?

Now we go on to expand around \phi_{g}^a, and the results in the book are
<br /> (-\partial^2 +m_{\sigma}^2 )\sigma =0,\quad (-\partial^2 +m_{\pi}^2)\pi=0<br />
with \pi=\phi^1 and \phi^0=v+\sigma
and
<br /> m_{\sigma}^2=\mu^2 +3\lambda v^2=2\lambda v^2+\epsilon /v<br />
<br /> m_{\pi}^2=\mu^2+\lambda v^2=\epsilon /v<br />
Now the reason I asked the above question is, substituting the first definition of v^2 into these mass definitions, m_{\pi} equals zero...

So then, what is v^2 in the symmetry breaking equations, why use the same letter IF it's different, and not say so?

Thanks,
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The vacuum expectation value, v, is defined by \phi^a_g = v \delta_{a0}. Its value is set by the classical potential to be a root of (\mu^2+ \lambda v^2)v=\epsilon. When \epsilon =0, it takes the value v^2 = - \mu^2/\lambda, but not in general. It should be obvious why the same letter is used when viewed in this way.
 
That helps, thanks.
 
geez, I still can't get that second set of quoted equations. Here are my steps. I am starting with the EOM
<br /> (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda \phi^2)\phi^a=\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
and I am expanding around v as \phi^0 =v+\sigma and \phi^1 =\pi. That gives me
<br /> (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda (\phi^0 \phi^0 + \phi^1 \phi^1))\phi^a =\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
<br /> (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda (v^2+2\sigma v +\pi^2))\phi^a =\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
<br /> (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda (v^2+2\sigma v +\pi^2))(v+\sigma)=\epsilon ,\quad (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda (v^2+2\sigma v +\pi^2))\pi=0<br />
The first equation turns to, using (\mu^2+\lambda v^2)v=\epsilon
<br /> -\partial^2 (v+\sigma )+\mu^2 \sigma +\lambda \pi^2 v +\lambda \pi^2 \sigma +3\lambda v^2 \sigma =0<br />
and the second
<br /> -\partial^2 \pi +\mu^2 \pi +\lambda v^2 \pi +2\lambda v \sigma \pi =0<br />
Both of these have many of the terms I need, plus a number of them that don't show up in the book. Where am I going wrong?

Thanks,
 
jfy4 said:
The first equation turns to, using (\mu^2+\lambda v^2)v=\epsilon
<br /> -\partial^2 (v+\sigma )+\mu^2 \sigma +\lambda \pi^2 v +\lambda \pi^2 \sigma +3\lambda v^2 \sigma =0<br />
and the second
<br /> -\partial^2 \pi +\mu^2 \pi +\lambda v^2 \pi +2\lambda v \sigma \pi =0<br />
Both of these have many of the terms I need, plus a number of them that don't show up in the book. Where am I going wrong?

Thanks,

The terms which are of higher order in the fields are interaction terms. To find the mass we want the terms in the e.o.m. that are linear , so write those as

<br /> -\partial^2 \sigma+(\mu^2 +3\lambda v^2 )\sigma = - \lambda v \pi^2 -\lambda \pi^2 \sigma <br />
<br /> -\partial^2 \pi + (\mu^2 +\lambda v^2) \pi = - 2\lambda v \sigma \pi .<br />

The terms on the RHS are just \partial V/\partial \sigma and \partial V/\partial \pi, where V(\sigma,\pi) is the part of the scalar potential without the mass terms.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K