BobG
Science Advisor
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nismaratwork said:There's very little debate; the only body that can determine the constitutionality of a law is the Judiciary, ultimately SCOTUS. Without such a ruling, failure to enforce a law is, frankly, treasonous.
edit: I'd add, when you have laws that are defunct, and conflicts between federal and state law, you get the medical marijuana issue, and this DOMA crud. It's quite destructive.
Section 2 of DOMA:
`No State, territory, or possession of the United States, or Indian tribe, shall be required to give effect to any public act, record, or judicial proceeding of any other State, territory, possession, or tribe respecting a relationship between persons of the same sex that is treated as a marriage under the laws of such other State, territory, possession, or tribe, or a right or claim arising from such relationship.'.
(bolding mine)
Article 4, Section 1 of US Constitution:
(bolding mine)Full Faith and Credit shall be given in each State to the public Acts, Records, and judicial Proceedings of every other State. And the Congress may by general Laws prescribe the Manner in which such Acts, Records and Proceedings shall be proved, and the Effect thereof.
Is it treasonous for Congress to pass a law in clear violation of the Constitution? And is it treasonous for the President to participate in those violations or is he cleared by the "Nuremberg Defense"?
Perhaps the second sentence of Art 4, Sec 1 provides some leeway for Congress? I have a lot of trouble seeing how, though.
Granted, the issue is Section 3 of DOMA; not Section 2 (which I think is clearly unconstitutional). Plus, those that see overuse of signing statements as a backdoor method of instituting line item vetoes do have a valid point. I don't think it's a very clear cut issue one way or the other.
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