Open subset of R written as a countable union of pairwise disjoint open intervals?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the theorem stating that every non-empty open set in ℝ can be expressed as a finite or countably infinite union of pairwise disjoint open intervals. Participants explore the proof of this theorem, with a focus on understanding the definitions and implications of open sets versus open intervals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion regarding the proof of the theorem, particularly questioning the definitions of αx and βx and their relation to the open set G.
  • Another participant points out that not all open sets in ℝ are intervals, using the example of the set (-1,0) ∪ (0,1) to illustrate this point.
  • A further comment emphasizes that the theorem applies to open sets in general, not just open intervals, providing another example of (0,1) ∪ (2,3).
  • The original poster acknowledges their misunderstanding and expresses relief at the clarification provided by others.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the distinction between open sets and open intervals, with multiple views presented regarding the nature of open sets in ℝ. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the original poster's confusion about the proof.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights limitations in understanding the definitions of open sets and intervals, as well as the implications of the theorem. There are unresolved aspects regarding the proof and its intuitive grasp.

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I wasn't sure if I should post this in the analysis or topology forum, but this seems to be closely related to compactness so I thought I'd post it here. When dealing with ℝ, the following theorem seems to be really important:"Every non-empty open set G in ℝ can be uniquely expressed as a finite or countably infinite union of pairwise disjoint open intervals in ℝ"Unfortunately, I have a very difficult time figuring out this proof even though apparently it seems like it's supposed to be pretty obvious. Sadly, the theorem doesn't even make intuitive sense to me. The proofs I see all start at like this:

(I'm just copying from this example document http://www.math.louisville.edu/~lee/RealAnalysis/IntroRealAnal-ch05.pdf , the proof on the top of page 5-7, because this seems to be a common way to tackle this proof)

"Let G be open in R. For x ∈ G let αx = inf {y | (y, x] ⊂ G} and βx =
sup {y| [x, y) ⊂ G}. The fact that G is open implies αx < x < βx. Define Ix = (αx, βx). Then Ix ⊂ G"

Here is where my confusion begins: isn't Ix G itself? We know G is an open interval on ℝ, so G = (a,b) for some a < b. So isn't αx = a and βx =
sup {y| [x, y) ⊂ G} = b? I mean just by def of sup and inf? I feel this is where all my confusion stems from and if I could clear up my faulty logic at this step I could digest the remainder of the proof.
 
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Not all open sets are intervals in \mathbb{R}. Take the set (-1,0) \cup (0,1) for example.
 


Why do you think G is an open interval?? The theorem merely says that G is an open set. Not all open sets are open intervals! An easy example is (0,1)\cup (2,3).
 


aaaaah, thanks guys! I'm facepalming at the moment...
 

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