Ordinary points, regular singular points and irregular singular points

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In the discussion on ordinary and singular points in ordinary differential equations (ODEs), it is established that if p(x) and q(x) are finite at a point x₀, then x₀ is classified as an ordinary point. If the limits of (x - x₀)p(x) and (x - x₀)²q(x) exist and are finite, x₀ is considered a regular singular point. Conversely, if these limits are undefined, x₀ is deemed an irregular singular point. The conversation emphasizes the importance of evaluating limits to determine the classification of the point. Understanding these classifications is crucial for analyzing the behavior of solutions near singularities in ODEs.
JamesGoh
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Say we have an ODE

\frac{d^{2}x}{d^{2}y}+ p(x)\frac{dx}{dy}+q(x)y=0

Now, we introduce a point of interest x_{0}

If p(x) and q(x) remain finite at at x_{0}
is x_{0}
considered as an
ordinary point ?

Now let's do some multiplication with x_{0}
still being
the point of interest

(x-x_{0})p(x) (1)

and

(x-x_{0})^{2}q(x) (2)

If (1) and (2) remain finite, is x_{0}
considered as a regular singular point ?

Otherwise if (1) and (2) are undefined, is x_{0}
an irregular singular point ?

thanks in advance
 
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JamesGoh said:
Say we have an ODE

\frac{d^{2}x}{d^{2}y}+ p(x)\frac{dx}{dy}+q(x)y=0

Now, we introduce a point of interest x_{0}

If p(x) and q(x) remain finite at at x_{0}
is x_{0}
considered as an
ordinary point ?
Yes, it is.

Now let's do some multiplication with x_{0}
still being
the point of interest

(x-x_{0})p(x) (1)

and

(x-x_{0})^{2}q(x) (2)

If (1) and (2) remain finite, is x_{0}
considered as a regular singular point ?
Well, that depends. You started with the equation
\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+ p(x)\frac{dy}{dx}+ q(x)y= 0
Multiplying the second derivative by x- x_0 would be the same as having
\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+ \frac{p(x)}{x- x_0}\frac{dy}{dx}+ \frac{q(x)}{x- x_0}y= 0
Whether x_0 is a "regular singular point" or not now depends upon the limits of those two fractions as x goes to x_0. IF p(x) and q(x) were 0 at x= x_0, then x_0 might still be an ordinary point.

Otherwise if (1) and (2) are undefined, is x_{0}
an irregular singular point ?
Yes.

thanks in advance
Given the differential equation
\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+ p(x)\frac{dy}{dx}+ q(x)y= 0
If \lim_{x\to x_0}p(x) and \lim_{x\to x_0} q(x) exist, then x_0 is an "ordinary" point.

If those do not exist but \lim (x- x_0)(x- x_0)p(x) and \lim(x-x_0)^2q(x) exist, then x_0 is a "regular singular" point.

In any other situation, x_0 is an "irregular singular" point.

It might be helpful to remember that the "Euler-Lagrange" type equation,
(x- x_0)^2\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+ (x- x_0)\frac{dy}{dx}+ y= 0
has x_0 as a "regular singular point".
 
HallsofIvy said:
If those do not exist but \lim (x- x_0)(x- x_0)p(x) and \lim(x-x_0)^2q(x) exist, then x_0 is a "regular singular" point.

You mean \lim (x- x_0)p(x) for the last quote right ?
 
Yes, I managed to mess up a couple of formulas in that!
 

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