- #1
vertices
- 62
- 0
How can I convince myself of the following statement:
If x2<0, there exists L orthochronous Lorentz tranformation such that:
Lx = -x
My concern is this:
If for example, we take xµ=(1,0,0,0), then Lx in component form is:
Λµβxβ=Λµ0x0
=(Λ00, Λ10, Λ20, Λ30).
By definition, if it is an orthochronous LT, we must have Λ00≥1 so it is clear that the statement above is false for this example (as the RHS in the case of our example vector, can't be positive).
Can anyone think of an example xµ that would actually satisfy the condition Lx = -x?
If x2<0, there exists L orthochronous Lorentz tranformation such that:
Lx = -x
My concern is this:
If for example, we take xµ=(1,0,0,0), then Lx in component form is:
Λµβxβ=Λµ0x0
=(Λ00, Λ10, Λ20, Λ30).
By definition, if it is an orthochronous LT, we must have Λ00≥1 so it is clear that the statement above is false for this example (as the RHS in the case of our example vector, can't be positive).
Can anyone think of an example xµ that would actually satisfy the condition Lx = -x?