A particle moving in a one-dimensional potential is in a state such that its wavefunction at time t=0 is:
Psi(x,0)=A(x-a)x, 0<=x<=a, and
Sketch |Psi(x,0)|^2, which gives the probability distribution describing the position of the particle at time t=0.
The Attempt at a Solution
I am thrown by Psi in this question. It doesn't even resemble a wavefunction. Am I simply supposed to square the absolute value of the polynomial?