How Does Equation 4.144 Follow from 4.143 in Quantum Field Theory?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the derivation of the Pauli Jordan Green's function for the Klein-Gordon field, specifically how equation 4.144 follows from equation 4.143 in the provided lecture notes. The key to this derivation lies in the application of the Euler identity, which is essential for manipulating complex exponentials. Participants clarify the dimensionality of the dot product in the equations and address the integration limits, emphasizing the importance of symmetry in the integral. The conversation concludes with a consensus on the necessity of careful notation and variable changes in quantum field theory calculations.

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  • Understanding of Quantum Field Theory concepts
  • Familiarity with the Klein-Gordon equation
  • Knowledge of complex analysis, specifically Euler's formula
  • Experience with integration techniques in physics
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Yoran91
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Hi everyone,

I'm going through some lecture notes on Quantum Field Theory and I came across a derivation of an explicit form of the Pauli Jordan Green's function for the Klein-Gordon field.

The equations used in my lecture notes are equivalent to the ones in http://www.physics.byu.edu/faculty/berrondo/wt752/Invariant%20Functions.pdf
.

My question is actually quite simple: how does equation 4.144 follow from 4.143 in the above pdf? (the same equations are in my lecture notes as well).
 
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It's just due to the Euler identity

$$e^{i\theta} = \cos \theta + i \sin\theta.$$

This identity shows up in a lot of places, so it is a good one to remember!
 
fzero said:
It's just due to the Euler identity
There's a bit more to it than that, isn't there? Looks to me like he pulled a switcheroo in notation. In Eq 4.143, p·x is a 4-dimensional dot product, but in Eq. 4.144, the same p·x is 3-dimensional.
 
I see that I'd need to use \sin(x) = 1/2i (e^{ix}-e^{-ix}), but it seems like the factor \exp(i\vec{p}\cdot \vec{x}) is factored out, which can't be true. They way I see it is

\exp(-ip\cdot x)-\exp(ip\cdot x)=\exp(-iEt+i\vec{p}\cdot\vec{x})-\exp(iEt-i\vec{p}\cdot\vec{x}), in which it is not possible to just factor \exp(i\vec{p}\cdot \vec{x}) out and be left with \sin(Et) (with some factors)
 
Last edited:
Yes, the p and x on equation 4.144 should be bold to make that point clear
 
Yoran91 said:
I see that I'd need to use sin(x) = 1/2i (e^{ix}-e^{-ix}), but it seems like the factor \exp(i\vec{p}\cdot \vec{x}) is factored out, which can't be true.

why not?
 
I see your problem. You're forgetting that the integral is over a symmetric region. Make the change of variables \vec{p}' = - \vec{p} in one of the integrals and all is well
 
the spatial momentum goes from -infinity to infinity.so you can change the sign in one of them without any effect
 
But wouldn't that introduce a factor -1 (Jacobian) as well, so that the term left over would be a cosine rather than a sine?
 
  • #10
There is another -1 factor from the reversal of the integration limits
 
  • #11
Ah of course! Thanks!
 

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