Perturbation Theory: Square Well & Energy Levels

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SUMMARY

Perturbation theory is applicable only when the perturbation energy scale, defined by V_0, is significantly less than the energy difference between states of the unperturbed infinite square well system. This condition is mathematically expressed as V_0 << (ħ²π²)/(8ma²)(2n-1). The energy levels of the infinite square well depend on the quantum number n, specifically through the relation n² - (n-1)² = 2n - 1. For convergence of perturbation sums, the perturbation must be small relative to the energy difference, as higher-order terms amplify this ratio.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly perturbation theory
  • Familiarity with the infinite square well potential and its energy levels
  • Knowledge of mathematical expressions involving quantum states and energy differences
  • Basic grasp of eigenvalues and eigenvectors in quantum systems
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the mathematical foundations of perturbation theory in quantum mechanics
  • Explore the derivation of energy levels in the infinite square well potential
  • Investigate the convergence criteria for perturbation series in quantum systems
  • Examine higher-order perturbation effects and their implications on eigenstates
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in quantum mechanics, physicists analyzing potential wells, and researchers studying perturbation theory applications in quantum systems.

latentcorpse
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a particle moves in one dimension in the potential

V(x)=\infty \forall |x|&gt;a, V(x)=V_0 \cos{\frac{\pi x}{2a}} \forall |x| \leq a

now the unperturbed state that i use is just a standard infinite square well.

anyway the solution says that perturbation theory is only valid provided that the energy scale of the "bump" (set by V_0) is less than the difference in energy between square well states.
Q1: is this just a fact: perturbation theory is only applicable providing the perturbation is less than the energy difference of the states of the unperturbed system?

it then explains the above mathematically by saying:

V_0 &lt;&lt; \frac{{\hbar}^2 \pi^2}{8ma^2}(2n-1)
i can't for the life of me see where the RHS of that comes from. arent the energy levels dependent on n^2 and not n?
 
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i think if you look at the difference in energy is given by
n^2- (n-1)^2 = n^2 - (n^2 - 2n+1) = 2n-1

i think less than is probably not strong enough, i think the perturbation has to be "small" relative to the energy difference. Looking in Ballentine, this can be seen if you look at the first order contribution to the eigenvector. It effectively contains the ratio of the perturbation to the energy level difference. Higher order terms carry the ratio at higher powers, so for the perturbation sum to converge (and quickly) the ratio must be small
 

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