hadi amiri 4
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\foralln\inN\varphi(n)/mid/n
The statement "\(\forall n\in\mathbb{N}\;\varphi(n)\mid n\)" is definitively false, as evidenced by the counterexample \(\varphi(3) \not\mid 3\). The discussion highlights that this statement only holds for specific integers such as 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 12, and 16, as referenced in the OEIS sequence A007694. Participants clarify that deriving a contradiction is a valid method to demonstrate the falsehood of the statement, emphasizing the importance of arithmetic verification in proving such claims.
PREREQUISITESMathematicians, students of number theory, and anyone interested in understanding the implications of the Euler's totient function and its applications in mathematical proofs.
hadi amiri 4 said:how we prove the statement in post 3
roam said:Why can’t we derive a contradiction in order to show that it’s false?
CRGreathouse said:I imagine you meant
\forall n\in\mathbb{N}\;\varphi(n)\mid n (which is false; \varphi(3)\!\not\,\,\mid3)
but I'm not sure what the question is.
hadi amiri 4 said:how we prove the statement in post 3
CRGreathouse said:\forall n\in\mathbb{N}\;\varphi(n)\mid n
You can't, it's false. It only holds for 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 12, 16, ... = http://www.research.att.com/~njas/sequences/A007694 .
roam said:Why can’t we derive a contradiction in order to show that it’s false?
CRGreathouse, he asked how you prove the contradiction you gave in post 3 and you answered "You can't, it's false. "! You were, of course, referring to his original post, not the post you quoted.CRGreathouse said:I gave a contradiction, 3, in my first post.
HallsofIvy said:CRGreathouse, he asked how you prove the contradiction you gave in post 3 and you answered "You can't, it's false. "! You were, of course, referring to his original post, not the post you quoted.