Planck's constant in planetary orbits

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the implications of quantum mechanics in planetary orbits, specifically how much larger Planck's constant would need to be for quantum effects to be detectable. Using the uncertainty principle equation ΔxΔpx ≥ ħ/2, participants calculated that Planck's constant would need to be approximately 3.38E41 Js, indicating it would need to be 75 orders of magnitude larger than the currently accepted value. The calculations involved the Earth-Sun distance of 1.496E11 meters and the Earth's orbital speed of 28,900 m/s, leading to significant insights into the relationship between quantum mechanics and classical physics.

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QuantumBlink
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The question is:
If quantum mechanics were detectable in planetary orbits, how much larger than the currently accepted value would Plancks constant need to be?

Relevant equations

ΔxΔpx ≥ħ/2
p=mv

Earth-Sun dist 1.496E11
Earth orbit speed 28,900ms^-1
Earth mass 5.972E24 kg

The attempt at a solution


Δx=1.496E11
Δpx = 28,900ms^-1*5.972E24 kg

h= 4π Δx Δpx
h≈3.38E41 Js

I'm not sure I've I've gone about this question correctly, it's worth a considerable amount of marks so am unsure if it's a suitable solution.
 
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How are you defining Δp and Δx?
 
Defining Δx as the Earth Sun distance and Δp as the momentum of the Earth (mv), I wasn't sure how to do it any other way with the information given ?
 
... and, how are those quantities defined and used in the expression describing the uncertainty principle?
QuantumBlink said:
Relevant equations
ΔxΔpx ≥ħ/2
 
So oddly enough I have almost the same question, except ours is a bit less precise in the values of the Earth-Sun distance etc.

So I was taking the approach that:

Δp=p1-p2
Hence

Δp=m1v1-m2v2

One would assume m is constant and so m1=m2, while v is an average and there are minor fluctuations. Thus we have:

p1-p2=m(v1-v2)​

when you take the differential of that, m being a constant disappears so we get Δp=Δv

Similar treatment with Δx leads to:

Δx=Δd
where d=Earth-Sun Distance

From there you would solve the inequality for ħ then use ħ=h/2π

However I'm concerned I've been thinking about the Δ meaning wrong and hence come to the wrong conclusion, however in my problems last week with the uncertainty principle my demonstrator indicated I can't just assume Δp=p for whatever I'm doing, but I'm realizing now I'm a little fuzzy on the reasoning.

Am I on the right track here?

edit:

I've realized I've had brain fart (not actually had to do any calculus since first year >.> ) and the m doesn't magically disappear, so Δp DOES equal p in this case, since it would be mΔv, and here Δv=v, I think.
 
Last edited:
Having subbed in all the values I get the same answer as QuantumBlink is greater than h, so...

for quantum effects to be detectable (i.e. effects due to the uncertainty principle), h should be strictly greater than 3.38x10^41, I think?

So in general Planck's constant would need to be 75 orders of magnitude larger.
 

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