Breo said:
Who knows where this formula comes?
$$ e_i \otimes e_j + e_j \otimes e_i - \frac{2}{3}( \sum_{\substack{k}} e_k \otimes e_k
)\delta_{ij} $$
Ok, If you couple two spin 1 vectors, you get the following spins
\vec{ 1 } + \vec{ 1 } = ( \vec{ 2 } , \vec{ 1 } , \vec{ 0 } ) . \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (1)
In components, this means
[ 3 ] \otimes [ 3 ] = [ 5 ] \oplus [ 3 ] \oplus [ 1 ]. \ \ \ \ (1a)
What does this equation means? Well, the LHS is the (reducible) tensor product of two 3-vectors, e_{ i } \otimes e_{ j }. The RHS, which consists of irreducible tensors, is obtained by the decomposing the tensor product into (direct)sum of independent tensors. In general, you decompose a tensor into irreducible tensors by forming symmetric and antisymmetric combinations and subtracting all possible traces. So, your example is the simplest one:
<br />
e_{ i } \otimes e_{ j } = \frac{ 1 }{ 2 } G_{ i j } + \frac{ 1 }{ 2 } A_{ i j } + \frac{ 1 }{ 3 } \delta_{ i j } e_{ k } \otimes e_{ k } ,<br />
\ \ \ (1b)
where the tensor
G_{ i j } = e_{ i } \otimes e_{ j } + e_{ j } \otimes e_{ i } - \frac{ 2 }{ 3 } \delta_{ i j } e_{ k } \otimes e_{ k } ,
is symmetric, G_{ i j } = G_{ j i } and traceless \delta_{ i j } G_{ i j } = 0. Therefore, it has (3/2)(3 + 1) - 1= [5] components and can represent a massive spin \vec{ 2 } particle,
A_{ i j } = e_{ i } \otimes e_{ j } - e_{ j } \otimes e_{ i } ,
is anti-symmetric tensor. In 3-dimension, it has (3/2)(3 - 1 ) = [3] components. Therefore, it is equivalent to spin \vec{1} represented by the 3-vector v_{ i } \equiv \epsilon_{ i j k} A_{ j k }, and finally
e_{ k } \otimes e_{ k } = \mbox{ Tr } ( e_{ i } \otimes e_{ j } ) = \delta_{ m n} e_{ m } \otimes e_{ n } ,
is the invariant trace, i.e., [ 1 ] component scalar representing spin \vec{ 0 }.
So, equations eq(1), eq(1a) and eq(1b) all have the same meaning.