Potential difference between two points

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the potential difference between two points in an electric field. It begins with the assertion that the electric field at point A is zero, leading to a force of zero. The electric field at point B is calculated to be 14.4 N/C, and the potential difference is derived using the formula V = E·D, but it is pointed out that this formula is only valid for uniform fields. The correct approach involves integrating the electric field along the path from A to B, with suggestions on how to parameterize the path for integration. The conversation emphasizes the importance of choosing the right method for calculating potential differences in non-uniform electric fields.
goonking
Messages
434
Reaction score
3

Homework Statement


upload_2015-10-18_19-11-36.png


Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



we know the electric field at A is 0, so the force is 0.

V = work / charge = U / q = F⋅D / q

the electric field at B is 4 times 3.6N/C = 14.4 N/C

since E = F/q, F = Eq

force, F = 14.4q at point b

V = 14.4q⋅d/q

the q's cancel, d is the distance from A to b which is 4.47

V = 14.4 ⋅ 4.47 = 64.39

is this correct?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
goonking said:
V = work / charge = U / q = F⋅D / q
"D" is the displacement, yes? This is supposed to be a vector equation, ##V=\frac{1}{q}\vec F\cdot \vec D## or just ##V=\vec E\cdot \vec D##

The other mistake is that ##V=\vec E\cdot \vec D## is not the correct equation. If the field were uniform (constant ##\vec E##), then it would be correct, but in general we must say ##V_B-V_A=\int \limits_A^B \vec E\cdot d\vec D## where the integral can be along any path from point A to point B. (##V_B-V_A## should be independent of the path from A to B, so you are free to choose whichever path seems simplest to integrate along.)
 
Nathanael said:
"D" is the displacement, yes? This is supposed to be a vector equation, ##V=\frac{1}{q}\vec F\cdot \vec D## or just ##V=\vec E\cdot \vec D##

The other mistake is that ##V=\vec E\cdot \vec D## is not the correct equation. If the field were uniform (constant ##\vec E##), then it would be correct, but in general we must say ##V_B-V_A=\int \limits_A^B \vec E\cdot d\vec D## where the integral can be along any path from point A to point B. (##V_B-V_A## should be independent of the path from A to B, so you are free to choose whichever path seems simplest to integrate along.)
If I take the path from A to B, should the lower and upper bounds be 0 and 4.47?
 
goonking said:
If I take the path from A to B, should the lower and upper bounds be 0 and 4.47?
But what will you integrate with respect to? dx? dy? something else?

If you want to integrate along the straight line path, you would need to introduce a parameter. Call ##\vec A## and ##\vec B## the positions of points A and B respectively. Let's call the parameter s. Then you could parameterize the position vector of the charge like this:
##\vec R=\vec A+\frac{\vec B-\vec A}{|\vec B - \vec A|}s##.
See, ##\frac{\vec B-\vec A}{|\vec B - \vec A|}## is the unit vector from A to B. So, when you move along the parameter s, you are moving along the straight line from A to B (and the magnitude of s represents how far you've moved from A).
Then we would have
##d\vec D = \frac{\vec B-\vec A}{|\vec B - \vec A|}ds##
and then we would integrate from ##0 \text{ to }|\vec B - \vec A|## (≈4.47).

Slightly simpler would be to use the parametrization ##\vec R=\vec A+(\vec B-\vec A)s## and integrate from s=0 to s=1. (See when s=0, ##\vec R=\vec A##, and when s=1, ##\vec R= \vec B##)You can choose any path you want though. I would suggest integrating along the path consisting of two straight lines, from (2,0) to (0,0), and then from (0,0) to (4,0). Then you can integrate with respect to dy for the first part, and w.r.t. dx for the second part.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
996
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
1K
Replies
9
Views
591