Potential of a Finite Rod -Mastering physics

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The discussion revolves around calculating the electric potential at a point above a uniformly charged finite rod. The user is struggling to integrate the expression for the differential potential, dV, and is confused about the correct limits and the presence of an extraneous variable 'a'. Clarifications indicate that the potential V should be derived from the definite integral of dV over the rod's length, specifically from -L/2 to L/2. The correct approach involves evaluating the integral of the expression for dV without introducing unnecessary variables. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly applying integration limits to derive the final expression for the electric potential.
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Hi,
Im having a little problem doing a question in mastering physics, I was wondering if anyone can help.

here is the problem:
A finite rod of length L has total charge q, distributed uniformly along its length. The rod lies on the x -axis and is centered at the origin. Thus one endpoint is located at (-L/2,0), and the other is located at (L/2,0). Define the electric potential to be zero at an infinite distance away from the rod. Throughout this problem, you may use the constant k in place of the expression 1/4*pi*epsilon_0.

What is Va, the electric potential at point A (see the figure), located a distance d above the midpoint of the rod on the y axis?
Express your answer in terms of k, q, d, and L.

Here is what I have so far:

r =sqrt(d^2+x^2)
dV= k*(q/(2*(L/2)))*(dx/(sqrt(d^2+x^2)))
V=K*(q/2*(L/2)))*(ln*((sqrt(d^2+x^2)+a)/(sqrt(d^2+x^2)-a)) *I got this from book*

my problem is putting it all together, using k,q , d and L. especially the (ln*((sqrt(d^2+x^2)+a)/(sqrt(d^2+x^2)-a)) part, which does not want x in the answer. I am really lost.

Thanks.
 
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Are you sure you copied that formula for V correctly? It's not V, it's the antiderivative of dV/dx, and to get V you must evaluate it at the endpoints. In other words, after doing the indefinite integral of dV/dx with respect to x, you get what the book gives as V. But V is actually the definite integral over the portion of x where there is charge (-L/2, L/2). Also, where did 'a' come from?

Edit: actually, that isn't the antiderivative of dv/dx. I don't know what that is.
 
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The expression for dV looks correct.

V=\int_{-L/2}^{L/2}dV=\frac{kq}{L}\int_{-L/2}^{L/2}\frac{dx}{\sqrt{x^2+d^2}}

Just evaluate it and put in the right limits (not 'a' or 'x').
 
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