Prime Ideal in a Commutative Ring - Rotman Proposition 7.5

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding a specific aspect of the proof of Proposition 7.5 from Joseph J. Rotman's book on abstract algebra, particularly focusing on the properties of prime ideals in commutative rings. Participants are examining the implications of the statement that if \( I \) is a prime ideal, then \( 1 \notin I \), and its relevance to the structure of the quotient ring \( R/I \).

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Peter seeks clarification on why Rotman emphasizes that \( 1 + I \neq 0 + I \) in \( R/I \) when discussing prime ideals.
  • Fallen Angel suggests that Rotman is avoiding the case where \( I \) is not proper, which would lead to \( R/I \cong \{0\} \).
  • Another participant elaborates that a proper ideal cannot contain the identity \( 1 \), as this would contradict the definition of a proper ideal, reinforcing that \( 1 \notin I \) implies \( 0 \mod I \neq 1 \mod I \).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the definition of prime ideals as proper ideals and the implications of \( 1 \notin I \). However, the discussion does not reach a consensus on the broader implications or the necessity of Rotman's emphasis.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not address potential limitations or assumptions in the proof itself, nor does it explore the implications of the definitions used.

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I am reading Joseph J. Rotman's book: A First Course in Abstract Algebra with Applications (Third Edition) ...

I am currently studying Section 7.1 Prime Ideals and Maximal Ideals ... ...

I need help with understanding an aspect of the proof of Proposition 7.5

Proposition 7.5 and its proof reads as follows:View attachment 4727In the first part of the proof of the proposition above we read the following:

"Let $$I$$ be a prime ideal. Since $$I$$ is a proper idea, we have $$1 \notin I$$ and so $$1 + I \neq 0 + I$$ in $$R/I$$ ... ... ... "

My question is ... ... why is Rotman taking trouble to show that $$1 + I \neq 0 + I$$ in $$R/I$$?

What is the point Rotman is making ... ... ?

Hope someone can clarify this matter ... ...

Peter
 
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Hi Peter,

He is just avoiding the case when $I$ is not proper and then $R/I\cong \{0\}$.
 
Fallen Angel has answered the question already, but I will elaborate a bit more on this in case it's not clear :

A proper ideal of a ring $R$ is an ideal which is not the whole ring $R$. By definition, prime ideals are proper. If a prime ideal $I \subset R$ contained the identity $1$, then it has to contain every element of $R$ by definition of an ideal, hence forcing it to be not proper - contradiction.

Thus, $1 \notin I$, which in turn implies $0 \mod I \neq 1 \mod I$ (note : I use $a \mod I$ to denote an element of $R/I$ instead of $a + I$).
 
mathbalarka said:
Fallen Angel has answered the question already, but I will elaborate a bit more on this in case it's not clear :

A proper ideal of a ring $R$ is an ideal which is not the whole ring $R$. By definition, prime ideals are proper. If a prime ideal $I \subset R$ contained the identity $1$, then it has to contain every element of $R$ by definition of an ideal, hence forcing it to be not proper - contradiction.

Thus, $1 \notin I$, which in turn implies $0 \mod I \neq 1 \mod I$ (note : I use $a \mod I$ to denote an element of $R/I$ instead of $a + I$).
Fallen Angel, Mathbalarka

Thanks for your help ... appreciate you assistance ...

Peter
 

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