Prime Ideal in a Commutative Ring - Rotman Proposition 7.5

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The discussion centers on Proposition 7.5 from Joseph J. Rotman's "A First Course in Abstract Algebra with Applications (Third Edition)," specifically regarding the proof involving prime ideals in a commutative ring. Participants clarify that a prime ideal \( I \) must be a proper ideal, which necessitates that \( 1 \notin I \). This leads to the conclusion that \( 0 + I \neq 1 + I \) in the quotient ring \( R/I \), reinforcing the definition of prime ideals and avoiding contradictions in the proof.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of prime ideals in ring theory
  • Familiarity with quotient rings, specifically \( R/I \)
  • Basic knowledge of abstract algebra concepts as presented in Rotman's textbook
  • Ability to interpret mathematical proofs and definitions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the definitions and properties of prime and maximal ideals in commutative rings
  • Learn about quotient rings and their significance in ring theory
  • Review Proposition 7.5 in Rotman's book for deeper insights
  • Explore examples of proper and improper ideals in various rings
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Students of abstract algebra, mathematicians focusing on ring theory, and anyone seeking to understand the nuances of prime ideals and their implications in mathematical proofs.

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I am reading Joseph J. Rotman's book: A First Course in Abstract Algebra with Applications (Third Edition) ...

I am currently studying Section 7.1 Prime Ideals and Maximal Ideals ... ...

I need help with understanding an aspect of the proof of Proposition 7.5

Proposition 7.5 and its proof reads as follows:View attachment 4727In the first part of the proof of the proposition above we read the following:

"Let $$I$$ be a prime ideal. Since $$I$$ is a proper idea, we have $$1 \notin I$$ and so $$1 + I \neq 0 + I$$ in $$R/I$$ ... ... ... "

My question is ... ... why is Rotman taking trouble to show that $$1 + I \neq 0 + I$$ in $$R/I$$?

What is the point Rotman is making ... ... ?

Hope someone can clarify this matter ... ...

Peter
 
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Hi Peter,

He is just avoiding the case when $I$ is not proper and then $R/I\cong \{0\}$.
 
Fallen Angel has answered the question already, but I will elaborate a bit more on this in case it's not clear :

A proper ideal of a ring $R$ is an ideal which is not the whole ring $R$. By definition, prime ideals are proper. If a prime ideal $I \subset R$ contained the identity $1$, then it has to contain every element of $R$ by definition of an ideal, hence forcing it to be not proper - contradiction.

Thus, $1 \notin I$, which in turn implies $0 \mod I \neq 1 \mod I$ (note : I use $a \mod I$ to denote an element of $R/I$ instead of $a + I$).
 
mathbalarka said:
Fallen Angel has answered the question already, but I will elaborate a bit more on this in case it's not clear :

A proper ideal of a ring $R$ is an ideal which is not the whole ring $R$. By definition, prime ideals are proper. If a prime ideal $I \subset R$ contained the identity $1$, then it has to contain every element of $R$ by definition of an ideal, hence forcing it to be not proper - contradiction.

Thus, $1 \notin I$, which in turn implies $0 \mod I \neq 1 \mod I$ (note : I use $a \mod I$ to denote an element of $R/I$ instead of $a + I$).
Fallen Angel, Mathbalarka

Thanks for your help ... appreciate you assistance ...

Peter
 

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